Understanding Saturated Sets in Quotient Maps

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of saturated sets in the context of quotient maps, as presented in Munkres' topology textbook. Participants explore the definition of saturation, its implications, and equivalent formulations, while seeking clarification on the requirements for subsets of the codomain.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses confusion over the definition of a saturated set with respect to a surjective map, seeking help to understand it.
  • Another participant clarifies that a subset C is saturated if it contains all elements of the preimage p-1({y}) for any y in Y that intersects C.
  • A question is raised about whether there are any restrictions on the subset of Y, to which it is stated that any subset will suffice.
  • Further clarification is provided that C is saturated if and only if C = p-1(p(C)), emphasizing the relationship between C and its image under p.
  • One participant prefers to discuss quotient mappings in terms of equivalence relations, suggesting that a saturated set can also be defined as the union of equivalence classes.
  • It is noted that different equivalent forms of saturation may provide varying insights, although all forms are considered equivalent.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the definition and implications of saturated sets, but there is some exploration of different perspectives on how to approach quotient mappings and equivalence relations.

Contextual Notes

Participants discuss the equivalence of different definitions of saturated sets without resolving the nuances of their preferences for specific formulations or approaches.

hideelo
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I am reading munkres topolgy and I am struggling with understanding the following sentence:

"We say that a subset C of X is saturated (with respect to the surjective map p:X→Y) if C contains every set p-1({y}) that it intersects"

if you have the second edition its in chapter 2 section 22 (page 137)

It's not that I have questions on it I just can't seem to make heads or tails of that sentence.

any help would be appreciated
 
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hideelo said:
"We say that a subset C of X is saturated (with respect to the surjective map p:X→Y) if C contains every set p-1({y}) that it intersects"
All it means is that if C intersect p-1({y}) is nonempty, then C actually contains all of p-1({y}). So if C is saturated and p-1({y}) has say, two elements, it is not possible that only one of those elements is in C.

This is equivalent to "C is a saturated subset of X if C is the preimage of some subset of Y".
 
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thanks

do we make any demands on the subset of Y, need it be open, closed... or will any subset do?
 
hideelo said:
thanks

do we make any demands on the subset of Y, need it be open, closed... or will any subset do?
Any subset will do.
 
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hideelo said:
thanks

do we make any demands on the subset of Y, need it be open, closed... or will any subset do?

Another equivalent form is that ##C## is saturated if and only if ##C=p^{-1}(p(C))##. So the exact form of the subset of ##Y## is ##p(C)##.

That said, I prefer dealing with quotient mappings in terms of equivalence relations. Thus a quotient map ##p:X\rightarrow Y## induces a equivalence relation on ##X## given by ##x\sim x^\prime## if and only iff ##p(x) = p(x^\prime)##. The set of all equivalence classes can then be identified wuth ##Y##.

In that form, we can give new equivalent forms of saturated sets. One such form is to say that a set ##C## is saturated iff it is the union of equivalence classes. Another form is to say that ##C## is saturated if for any ##x\in C## and ##y\in C## such that ##x\sim y## holds that ##y\in C##.

All of these forms are easily seen to be equivalent, but sometimes one equivalent form might give more insight than another one.
 

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