MHB Understanding the Completeness Axiom: A Discussion on Ross' Analysis

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The discussion centers on the completeness axiom as presented in Ross' analysis book, specifically addressing confusion regarding an example where a set lacks a minimum. The participant initially misunderstands the absence of a maximum, questioning why a minimum does not exist. Clarification reveals that while numbers in the set approach zero, they never actually reach it, illustrating the concept of limits in sequences. The participant acknowledges their mistake in focusing on the index of numbers rather than the properties of the set. This highlights the nuanced understanding required for the completeness axiom in mathematical analysis.
Joppy
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I was reading through the early chapters of Ross' book on analysis in the section covering the completeness axiom. See below.

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Followed by a few examples.

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I'm confused as to why in the example (e), the set does not have a minimum.

I can understand that it does not have a maximum, but it seems there should be a maximum. What am i not understanding?

EDIT: The full pdf can be found https://issuu.com/juanjosesanchez22/docs/ross_sequenses.
 

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It's one of those many situations in which the numbers can get arbitrarily close to something (in this case, zero), but can't actually get there. Ask yourself this: is there any natural number which, when plugged into the formula $n^{(-1)^n}$, gives you zero? But you can see from the progression that every other number is getting smaller and smaller, closer and closer to zero.
 
Ackbach said:
It's one of those many situations in which the numbers can get arbitrarily close to something (in this case, zero), but can't actually get there. Ask yourself this: is there any natural number which, when plugged into the formula $n^{(-1)^n}$, gives you zero? But you can see from the progression that every other number is getting smaller and smaller, closer and closer to zero.

Ah how silly of me! For some reason i was (very foolishly) focusing on the index of numbers in the set... Thanks.
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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