Understanding the Convolution Property in Physics: Derivative Inside an Integral

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the convolution property in physics, specifically the justification for pulling the derivative inside the integral. The property is expressed as \((f*g)^\prime(x) = \int f(u) \frac{d}{dx} g(x-u) du = (f * g^\prime)(x)\). This is a specific case of a broader principle where \(F(x) = \int_{a}^{b} f(x,y) dy\) and if \(f\) is continuous with a continuous partial derivative, then \(F'(x) = \int_{a}^{b} \frac{\partial}{\partial x} f(x,y) dy\). The discussion references the Wikipedia entry on differentiation under the integral sign for further details.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of convolution in mathematical physics
  • Familiarity with integral calculus and differentiation
  • Knowledge of continuous functions and their properties
  • Basic grasp of partial derivatives
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the proof of differentiation under the integral sign as detailed on Wikipedia
  • Explore applications of convolution in signal processing
  • Learn about the properties of continuous functions and their derivatives
  • Investigate advanced topics in functional analysis related to integrals and derivatives
USEFUL FOR

Students and professionals in physics, mathematicians, and anyone interested in advanced calculus and its applications in various fields such as engineering and signal processing.

radiator
Messages
23
Reaction score
0
something I often see without justification in my physics books. What is the justification for the following convolution property (pulling the derivative inside the integral)
[tex](f*g)^\prime = \frac{d}{dx} \int f(x) g(x-u) dx = \int f(x) \frac{d}{dx} g(x-u) dx = f(x) * g(x)^\prime[/tex]
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I think you mean
$$(f*g)^\prime(x) = \frac{d}{dx} \int f(u) g(x-u) du = \int f(u) \frac{d}{dx} g(x-u) du = (f * g^\prime)(x)$$
This is a special case of a more general situation. Suppose
$$F(x) = \int_{a}^{b} f(x,y) dy$$
where ##a## and ##b## are constants not dependent on ##x##. Then if ##f## is sufficiently nice, we have
$$F'(x) = \int_{a}^{b} \frac{\partial}{\partial x} f(x,y) dy$$
Sufficiently nice means, for example, that ##f## is continuous and that ##\partial f /\partial x## exists and is continuous. No point writing out a proof here; see this Wikipedia entry:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Differentiation_under_the_integral_sign#Proof_of_Theorem
 
Thanks for the correction. I guess I understand the justification.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
4K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
4K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K