Understanding the Derivative of ln(cos x) for Plane Curves?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on finding the derivative of the function ln(cos(t)) using the chain rule in the context of plane curves defined by r(t) = ti + ln(cos(t)). The correct derivative is -tan(t), as established by applying the chain rule, which requires differentiating both the outer function ln(x) and the inner function cos(t). Participants clarify that the derivative of ln(cos(t)) involves multiplying the derivative of ln(cos(t)) by the derivative of cos(t), leading to the final result. Misunderstandings about the application of the chain rule and the properties of logarithms are addressed throughout the conversation.

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Homework Statement



the question is for plane curves. find T N and k for the plane curves

1. r(t) = ti + ln (cos t)

the derivative of ln x is 1/|x|, so why isn't the derivative of ln cos x, 1/cos x or sec x?

My book says the answer is - tan x
 
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Because \ln{\cos{x}} is actually a composition of the functions \ln{x} and \cos{x}. Therefore you need to use the chain rule.
 
I put in the question into the original post. I don't see how they're using the chain rule. They aren't deriving two terms, it's just ln (cos t). if they're driving t, then i would think the derivative of t would just be 1.
 
you need to use the derivative of ln r(t), which is r'(t)/ r (t)
try that!
 
Consider this problem: Find the derivative of ##y=\ln t^2##.

First method: Using the property of logs, we pull the exponent out front.
$$y=\ln t^2 = 2\ln t$$ When you differentiate this, you get
$$y' = 2\left(\frac{1}{t}\right).$$ This is the correct answer.

Second method: Just "differentiate" the way you did
$$y' = \frac{1}{t^2}.$$ This is wrong. Why is it wrong?
 
but there's no exponent involved here. plus look at this problem: they just derive everything normally here. they don't do the r'/r

Screenshot2012-02-26at52420AM.png
 
The chain rule says that the derivative of f(g(t)) is f'(g(t))g'(t).
This is what vela illustrated.

In your case, for ln(cos(t)), you have calculated f'(g(t)) which is 1/cos(t), but you still need to multiply by g'(t) which is the derivative of cos(t).
 
ok, I sort of understand.
 
bobsmith76 said:
ok, I sort of understand.

So do you understand how the book got -tan(t)?
 

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