MHB Understanding the Difference Between 1 and 2 in Natural Numbers

  • Thread starter Thread starter HashTab
  • Start date Start date
HashTab
Messages
3
Reaction score
0
first of all, id like to thank the admin for taking down a rather embarrassing post I had put up earlier. I'll try to do better this time.

N = any natural number
1 = xUx
2 = xUxUx

What exactly is the difference between 1 and 2? Is each instance of x different? If so, how?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Someone just explained to me that sets that are not each other are different than each other because sets are different than what they are not

True or no?
 
Last edited:
Simmer said:
Someone just explained to me that sets that are not each other are different than each other because sets are different than what they are not

True or no?
?
ANYTHING, whether a set or not, is "different than what they are not"! That's pretty much what "different" means.

I suspect that what they were trying to tell you is that a set is "defined" by what it contains. Two sets are "equal" if and only if they contain exactly the same things.
 
Last edited:
Simmer said:
first of all, id like to thank the admin for taking down a rather embarrassing post I had put up earlier. I'll try to do better this time.

N = any natural number
1 = xUx
2 = xUxUx

What exactly is the difference between 1 and 2? Is each instance of x different? If so, how?
You wrote this- what do YOU intend "x" to mean? Normally, unless something is said to the contrary, one symbol corresponds to one mathematical object. In particular, if x represents one set then both xUx and xUxUx are the same, x, because the union of any set with itself is just itself again. xUx= x so xUxUx= (xUx)Ux= xUx= x.

However, if it is clearly stated that "x" is a "place holder", that "x" is not a specific set but just represents any set, then xUx might mean "the union of any two sets" and xUxUx might mean "the union of any three sets. (Though I would consider that poor notation.)

(What does "N is a natural number" have to do with this?)
 
Hi all, I've been a roulette player for more than 10 years (although I took time off here and there) and it's only now that I'm trying to understand the physics of the game. Basically my strategy in roulette is to divide the wheel roughly into two halves (let's call them A and B). My theory is that in roulette there will invariably be variance. In other words, if A comes up 5 times in a row, B will be due to come up soon. However I have been proven wrong many times, and I have seen some...
Thread 'Detail of Diagonalization Lemma'
The following is more or less taken from page 6 of C. Smorynski's "Self-Reference and Modal Logic". (Springer, 1985) (I couldn't get raised brackets to indicate codification (Gödel numbering), so I use a box. The overline is assigning a name. The detail I would like clarification on is in the second step in the last line, where we have an m-overlined, and we substitute the expression for m. Are we saying that the name of a coded term is the same as the coded term? Thanks in advance.
Back
Top