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I'm slightly confused with the following function so I was wondering if anybody could give me some hints as to the next step.
A function f is defined as
[tex] f:\mathbb{C} \longrightarrow \mathbb{C} \\[/tex]
[tex] ~~z \longmapsto |z|[/tex]
where
[tex] \mathbb{C} = (\mathbb{C},+)[/tex]
assuming the function is a homomorphism, I've gone on to find
[tex] \rm{Ker}(f) = \{0\}[/tex]
[tex] \rm{Im}(f) = \mathbb{R}^+ \cup \{0\}[/tex]
by the first isomorphism theorem I would have made the following conclusion(this part doesn't make sense to me):
[tex] \mathbb{C}/\rm{Ker}(f) \cong (\mathbb{R}^+ \cup \{0\}, + )[/tex]
But firstly
[tex] (\mathbb{R}^+ \cup \{0\}, + )[/tex]
is not a group since there is no inverse element, and secondly since Ker(f) = the trivial group
[tex] \mathbb{C}/\rm{Ker}(f) \cong (\mathbb{C}, + )[/tex]
Could somebody give me some pointers please?
A function f is defined as
[tex] f:\mathbb{C} \longrightarrow \mathbb{C} \\[/tex]
[tex] ~~z \longmapsto |z|[/tex]
where
[tex] \mathbb{C} = (\mathbb{C},+)[/tex]
assuming the function is a homomorphism, I've gone on to find
[tex] \rm{Ker}(f) = \{0\}[/tex]
[tex] \rm{Im}(f) = \mathbb{R}^+ \cup \{0\}[/tex]
by the first isomorphism theorem I would have made the following conclusion(this part doesn't make sense to me):
[tex] \mathbb{C}/\rm{Ker}(f) \cong (\mathbb{R}^+ \cup \{0\}, + )[/tex]
But firstly
[tex] (\mathbb{R}^+ \cup \{0\}, + )[/tex]
is not a group since there is no inverse element, and secondly since Ker(f) = the trivial group
[tex] \mathbb{C}/\rm{Ker}(f) \cong (\mathbb{C}, + )[/tex]
Could somebody give me some pointers please?
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