Understanding the First Isomorphism Theorem in Homomorphisms of Complex Numbers

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of the First Isomorphism Theorem in the context of a function defined from the complex numbers to the real numbers, specifically examining the properties of a proposed homomorphism and its implications for group structure.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the validity of the function as a homomorphism and question the group structure of the image set. There is discussion about the kernel of the function and the implications of the First Isomorphism Theorem.

Discussion Status

Some participants have pointed out inconsistencies in the original poster's reasoning regarding the homomorphic properties of the function. Others have clarified the need to specify group laws and have noted that the image set does not form a group. There is recognition of mistakes made in earlier posts, and a shift towards understanding the correct application of the theorem.

Contextual Notes

There is an ongoing discussion about the definitions and properties of the groups involved, particularly regarding the nature of the complex numbers under different operations and the implications for homomorphisms.

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I'm slightly confused with the following function so I was wondering if anybody could give me some hints as to the next step.

A function f is defined as

[tex] f:\mathbb{C} \longrightarrow \mathbb{C} \\[/tex]
[tex] ~~z \longmapsto |z|[/tex]
where
[tex] \mathbb{C} = (\mathbb{C},+)[/tex]
assuming the function is a homomorphism, I've gone on to find
[tex] \rm{Ker}(f) = \{0\}[/tex]
[tex] \rm{Im}(f) = \mathbb{R}^+ \cup \{0\}[/tex]
by the first isomorphism theorem I would have made the following conclusion(this part doesn't make sense to me):
[tex] \mathbb{C}/\rm{Ker}(f) \cong (\mathbb{R}^+ \cup \{0\}, + )[/tex]

But firstly
[tex] (\mathbb{R}^+ \cup \{0\}, + )[/tex]
is not a group since there is no inverse element, and secondly since Ker(f) = the trivial group
[tex] \mathbb{C}/\rm{Ker}(f) \cong (\mathbb{C}, + )[/tex]

Could somebody give me some pointers please?
 
Last edited:
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That map is not a homomorphism for (C,+) (eg, |1+(-1)]=0 [itex]\neq[/itex]|1|+|-1|=2), but it is for (C,*).
 
Firstly, when talking about groups it is best to specify whenever necessary what the group laws are before hand, and secondly. The image set is not a group in any obvious way, the map is not a homomorphism of groups, so applying the 1st isomorphism theorem won't get you anywhere.

StatusX, (C,*) is not a group, either.

The mod map is a homomorphism from the non-zero complex numbers to the reals, the kernel is the unit circle, and indeed the 1st isomorphism theorem holds.
 
Thanks for the reply - now that I've looked at it with the information you provided I realize I made a howler of a mistake in the first part of my working.
 
matt grime said:
StatusX, (C,*) is not a group, either.

Right, sorry. Although I didn't really say it was, I just said that the map is a homomorphism, ie, structure preserving, not a group homomorphism. Or maybe by C I was referring to the extended complex numbers, I just couldn't write it in this font. I know, I'm reaching.
 
StatusX said:
Or maybe by C I was referring to the extended complex numbers, I just couldn't write it in this font. I know, I'm reaching.

The extended complex numbers under multiplication still aren't a group: 0*infinity is not even defined. I don't know, from the context, if you genuinely think that they are, but I would hope you didn't think they were. You simply made a small oversight in your first post, that's all. We all do it.
 

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