Understanding the Inequality in Trigonometric Function Analysis

Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
2 replies · 2K views
gajohnson
Messages
70
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



This isn't really a homework question, just working through Rudin and got caught up on something. [itex]C(x)[/itex] and [itex]S(x)[/itex] refer to [itex]cos(x)[/itex] and [itex]sin(x)[/itex] respectively.

Here is the section in question:

http://grab.by/mSo8

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



Well the part I'm having trouble understanding is the claim: "Hence, if [itex]0≤x≤y[/itex], we have [itex]S(x)(y-x)<\int^{y}_{x}{S(t)}dt = C(x)-C(y)≤2[/itex]"

In particular, the inequality [itex]S(x)(y-x)<\int^{y}_{x}{S(t)}dt[/itex] is not clear to me. I reviewed a number of integration theorems but couldn't come up with anything that states this. Any help understanding how this inequality is derived would be much appreciated!

EDIT: OK, this might be really obvious. Is this simply true by the definition of the Riemann integral?
 
Last edited:
on Phys.org
Ah, of course. Got it. Thanks!