Understanding the Proof of the Existence of Rational Numbers in Any Interval

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the proof of the existence of rational numbers within any given interval (a, b). The original poster expresses confusion regarding the requirement for a sufficiently large positive integer n and the role of the integer K in the proof.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the proof by substituting specific numbers for a and b to clarify the concept. Questions arise about the necessity of n being large and the derivation of K.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided numerical examples to aid understanding, while others have raised additional questions about the implications of the proof, such as the existence of irrational numbers in the same interval.

Contextual Notes

There is an ongoing exploration of the assumptions related to the proof and the implications for both rational and irrational numbers within intervals. The discussion reflects a lack of consensus on how to formally state the theorem regarding irrational numbers.

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Homework Statement


theorem: There is at least 1 rational # in any interval

Say a<b and let I = (a,b).

Let n be a positive integer so large that 1/n < b-a and consider the numbers k/n (where K is an integer). Then there will be a K such that k/n EI



I'm just having a bit of trouble understanding this proof, it just seems to lack a lot of.. explanation

I don't understand why n has to be a positive integer so large that 1/n<b-a .. and where does K come from?
 
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Maybe it will help your understanding if I use numbers rather than variables. Let's say that a = 3/4 and b = 7/8, so I = (3/4, 7/8)

7/8 - 3/4 = 1/8, so let's take n = 9. Then 1/9 < 7/8 - 3/4.

Now consider the multiples of 1/9.
1/9
2/9
3/9
4/9
5/9
6/9
7/9 <<<
8/9
9/9

Of these multiples of 1/9, 7/9 is in the interval I.
 
Thank you! i get it now..

would this also mean that there are an infinite number of IRRATIONALS on every interval "I" as well? ifso, how would i go about stating that theorem?
 
That's true too. I think you could use the same idea: find an irrational number r that is smaller than the length of the interval, then multiply it by an integer n that is large enough so that a < nr < b.
 

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