Understanding the Squeeze Theorem: Finding Equations that "Squeeze" Together

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the Squeeze Theorem in calculus, specifically how to identify two bounding functions, g(x) and h(x), that "squeeze" a target function f(x) to determine its limit. The conditions for applying the theorem require that lim_{x→a}g(x) = lim_{x→a}h(x) and g(x) ≤ f(x) ≤ h(x) in a neighborhood around a. A classic example provided is the limit of (1/x)sin(x) as x approaches infinity, demonstrating that both bounding functions converge to 0, thus confirming that the limit of f(x) is also 0. Additionally, the discussion touches on the second part of the theorem regarding the absolute value condition and its implications for limits.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of limits in calculus
  • Familiarity with the properties of the sine function
  • Knowledge of inequalities and their applications in limit proofs
  • Basic proficiency in mathematical notation and expressions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the formal proof of the Squeeze Theorem in calculus textbooks
  • Explore examples of applying the Squeeze Theorem to various functions
  • Learn about the implications of the absolute value condition in limit proofs
  • Investigate the relationship between bounded functions and their limits
USEFUL FOR

Students of calculus, mathematics educators, and anyone seeking to deepen their understanding of limit theorems and their applications in mathematical analysis.

physstudent1
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Hey could someone explain the squeeze theorem to me a little; I understand you want 2 equations that "squeeze" another one into between them sothat you can find they're limits and find the equations limit but how do you find the 2 equations that squeeze the original one in?
 
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There's no general way of finding two functions that satisfy the criteria...
You just want to find two functions g and h such that:
lim_{x\rightarrow a}g(x)=lim_{x\rightarrow a}h(x) and
g(x)\leq f(x) \leq h(x) for all x within ssome neighbourhood of a. Then, the squeeze theorem tells you that the limit those two have at a is the same as the limit f has at a.
Like I said-- the choice of your g and h is completely arbitrary-- you just want them to satisfy those conditions.
Sometimes, e.g. when you have \frac{1}{x}sin(x), boundedness helps. Observe:
-1 \leq sin(x) \leq 1 (Property of the sine function)
This implies -\frac{1}{x} \leq \frac{1}{x} sin(x) \leq \frac{1}{x}. (Whenever x>0)
As you can see, the limit as x\rightarrow \infty of the left and right hand sides of the inequality match and equal 0, and so the limit of the function \frac{1}{x} sin(x) is 0. This is a classic application of the squeeze theorem.
I hope that helped.
 
I get that part of it, but my question is on the 2nd part of the squeeze theorem.

It states abs(g(x))<=M for all x not zero.
then lim f(x) x g(x)=0 as X--> a. Can someone show me the proof to this part and explain it. The book shows no further information and I'm confused as to what it means.
 
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