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So, if we showed {f_n} is

*not*uniformly convergent to some f (f is the pointwise limit), how do we know that there isn't some other function, say g, such that {f_n} converges to g uniformly?

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- #1

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So, if we showed {f_n} is

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CompuChip

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Suppose that the limit is f.

In the definition, you first pick some ε > 0.

Roughly speaking, for pointwise convergence you can find for any x some number N = N(x) such that for n > N, |f

For uniform convergence you can find an

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