Uniform Distribution on unit Circle

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

A random vector (X, Y) uniformly distributed over the unit circle has a probability density function (PDF) of \(\frac{1}{\pi}\). The proof involves defining the PDF as \(f_{X,Y}(x,y) = c\) for points within the circle (where \(x^2 + y^2 \leq 1\)) and zero otherwise. By integrating the PDF over the area of the circle, which is \(\pi\), it is established that \(c\) must equal \(\frac{1}{\pi}\) to satisfy the normalization condition of probability. This confirms that each point within the circle has an equal probability of occurrence.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of probability density functions (PDFs)
  • Knowledge of integration in multivariable calculus
  • Familiarity with the geometric properties of circles
  • Basic concepts of uniform distribution
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of probability density functions in detail
  • Learn about integration techniques in multivariable calculus
  • Explore uniform distributions in different geometric contexts
  • Investigate applications of uniform distributions in statistical modeling
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, statisticians, data scientists, and anyone interested in understanding the principles of uniform distributions and probability density functions in geometric contexts.

IniquiTrance
Messages
185
Reaction score
0
I keep reading that a random vector (X, Y) uniformly distributed over the unit circle has probability density \frac{1}{\pi}. The only proof I've seen is that
f_{X,Y}(x,y) = \begin{cases} c, &\text{if }x^2 + y^2 \leq 1 \\ 0 &\text{otherwise}\end{cases}

And then you solve for c by integrating to 1. This does not seem self-evident to me. Can anyone please offer a more detailed proof? Thanks!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Hey IniquiTrance.

With a uniform distribution, each realization or outcome has exactly the same chance as every other outcome.

Now in this problem, we assign the same probability outcome for every single point and equal sized interval, which means we assign a probability of c for every point inside the region of the circle (including it's boundary).

Now since this is a probability, we need to make sure that integrating the PDF over the entire region gives us 1. Since the PDF is a constant (i.e. c) and does not depend on x or y, we can take it out of the integral.

Now the integral over the region is simply the area of the region. The area of a circle is given by pi*r2 but r = 1 so we just get pi. This means 1 = c*pi since the integral over the whole space must equal 1.

This means by re-arranging, we get c = 1/pi.
 
Thank you.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
4K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
12
Views
3K