Use Binary expansion to show (0,1) ≈ all infinite subsequences of {X_n}

In summary: I've just noticed that you started other threads about this problem. (Naughty!) In another thread you stated the hints you were given and that part of the problem is to prove A is countable. Maybe the method the instructor has in mind is to show that the union of A and B has the same cardinality of [0,1] and then argue that B alone is also uncountable.
  • #1
Wildcat
116
0

Homework Statement


{xn} is an infinite sequence and xi ≠ xj if i ≠j. Let A and B denote all finite subsequences of {xn} and all infinite subsequences of {xn}, respectively.

Show that B ≈ (0,1).



Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



Using binary expansion, given a from (0,1) we have a=0.a1a2a3... where ai is either 0 or 1. You can map a to a subsequence which consists of those xi whose corresponding ai=1 where do I go from here?
 
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  • #2
Wildcat said:
Using binary expansion, given a from (0,1) we have a=0.a1a2a3... where ai is either 0 or 1. You can map a to a subsequence which consists of those xi whose corresponding ai=1

That doesn't handle the case where we have a number like 0.10000... since it would map to a finite subsequence instead of an infinite subsequence. You need to make an infinite string of zeroes do something also.

In practical digital communications transmitting a along run of 0's or 1's is prone to errors when hardware uses the change from 0's to 1's to update the syncrhonization of the transmitter and receiver clocks. So there are schemes to avoid this. (See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Run_length_limited) They might provide some ideas.
 
  • #3
Stephen Tashi said:
That doesn't handle the case where we have a number like 0.10000... since it would map to a finite subsequence instead of an infinite subsequence. You need to make an infinite string of zeroes do something also.

In practical digital communications transmitting a along run of 0's or 1's is prone to errors when hardware uses the change from 0's to 1's to update the syncrhonization of the transmitter and receiver clocks. So there are schemes to avoid this. (See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Run_length_limited) They might provide some ideas.

In the original statement B is all infinite subsequences, so would that automatically exclude anything like the case you mentioned? wouldn't that case be in A??


I think I need to find a bijection between (0,1) and B. For example, 1/3 is.01010101... so we will map it to the subsequence x2,x4,x6,... does that make sense??
 
  • #4
Wildcat said:
In the original statement B is all infinite subsequences, so would that automatically exclude anything like the case you mentioned? wouldn't that case be in A??


I think I need to find a bijection between (0,1) and B. For example, 1/3 is.01010101... so we will map it to the subsequence x2,x4,x6,... does that make sense??

Makes perfect sense. The problem Stephen Tashi is referring to is 0.1000000... and 0.011111... correspond to the same number in (0,1). But they correspond to two different sets. Just like 0.1 and 0.09999999... are the same number in decimal. They are both 1/10. In binary, they are two different ways of representing 1/2. So it's not quite a bijection. But it's a purely technical problem. The number of exceptions to the bijection is countable.
 
  • #5
Dick said:
Makes perfect sense. The problem Stephen Tashi is referring to is 0.1000000... and 0.011111... correspond to the same number in (0,1). But they correspond to two different sets. Just like 0.1 and 0.09999999... are the same number in decimal. They are both 1/10. In binary, they are two different ways of representing 1/2. So it's not quite a bijection. But it's a purely technical problem. The number of exceptions to the bijection is countable.

Thank you, that is very helpful!
 
  • #6
Wildcat said:
In the original statement B is all infinite subsequences, so would that automatically exclude anything like the case you mentioned? wouldn't that case be in A??

Yes, 0.10000... would map to an element of A, but I thought you were trying to map into B. You didn't explain your intent. The ambiguity between 0.1000... and 0.0999... may come to your rescue if you specify that all the numbers in [0,1] are to be written as non-terminating strings of digits.

I think I need to find a bijection between (0,1) and B. For example, 1/3 is.01010101... so we will map it to the subsequence x2,x4,x6,... does that make sense??

It's nice to solve problems like this with bijections, but its often easier to show each set maps 1-1 into a subset of the other. Is there a theorem like that your materials that would show that using two maps that way is sufficient for a proof?

I've just noticed that you started other threads about this problem. (Naughty!) In another thread you stated the hints you were given and that part of the problem is to prove A is countable. Maybe the method the instructor has in mind is to show that the union of A and B has the same cardinality of [0,1] and then argue that B alone is also uncountable.
 

FAQ: Use Binary expansion to show (0,1) ≈ all infinite subsequences of {X_n}

1. What is binary expansion?

Binary expansion is a method of representing a real number in binary form, by expressing it as a sum of powers of 2.

2. How does binary expansion relate to infinite subsequences?

Infinite subsequences can be represented as binary strings, where each digit corresponds to whether or not a certain element is included in the subsequence. By using binary expansion to represent each real number, we can show that all possible infinite subsequences are included in the set (0,1).

3. How do we show that (0,1) contains all infinite subsequences using binary expansion?

We can show this by using the Cantor's diagonal argument, which states that any real number between 0 and 1 can be represented as a binary string. This allows us to represent all possible infinite subsequences as binary strings, and therefore show that they are all included in the set (0,1).

4. Can we use binary expansion to prove this statement for other sets besides (0,1)?

Yes, we can use binary expansion to show that any set with the same cardinality as the real numbers (such as the set of all irrational numbers) also contains all possible infinite subsequences.

5. Is binary expansion the only way to show that (0,1) ≈ all infinite subsequences?

No, there are other methods such as using base 3 or base 4 expansions, but binary expansion is commonly used because of its simplicity and effectiveness.

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