Use Stokes's on Line Integral to Show Path Independence

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Stokes's theorem demonstrates that the line integral of the vector field F over a curve L depends solely on the endpoints of L, not the path taken. By considering two curves L and M with the same endpoints, a closed curve C can be formed, allowing the application of Stokes's theorem. The key is to compute the curl of F and show it is the zero vector, indicating that the integral over the closed path C is zero. This leads to the conclusion that the line integrals over L and M must be equal. The discussion also touches on scenarios where the curl may not be zero, yet similar properties could still hold under specific conditions.
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Use Stokes's theorem to show that line integral of ##\vec{F}(\vec{r})## over an curve ##L##, given by ##\int_L \vec{F}(\vec{r}) d\vec{r}##, depends only on the start and endpoint of ##L##, but not on the trajectory of ##L## between those two points.

Hint: Consider two different curves, ##L## and ##M##, say, which share a common start and endpoint. Construct from them a closed curve ##C## to which Stokes's theorem can be applied.

$$\vec{F}(\vec{r}) \equiv [F_x(\vec{r}), F_y(\vec{r}), F_z(\vec{r})] = [2z^2, 3z^2, (4x+6y)z] \rightarrow where \rightarrow \vec{r} \equiv [x,y,z].$$
 
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First, you need to remember that Stoke's theorem says that $$\iint\limits_S curl( \vec{F} ) d \vec{S} = \oint\limits_C \vec{F} d \vec{r}$$ You need to compute ##curl( \vec{F})## and show that it is the zero vector. This would mean that any closed line integral will be zero. This makes the integral over the path ##C## zero, which forces the two line integrals ##\int\limits_L \vec{F} d\vec{r}## and ##\int\limits_M \vec{F} d \vec{r}## to be equal.

Good Luck!
 
It's not necessarily the curl of F that needs to be zero, but the integration over the circumscribed area of the curl dotted into an element of normal area.
 
rude man said:
It's not necessarily the curl of F that needs to be zero, but the integration over the circumscribed area of the curl dotted into an element of normal area.

this is true, but I think if the curl is nonzero at some point then you could find a surface that makes the surface integral nonzero (you would need some sort of continuity assumption to prove this). Since this problem is talking about an arbitrary curve, L, I believe the only possibility is to show that the curl itself is zero.

I could imagine, however, a problem stated "for an arbitrary path on the surface, S, show that..." in which the curl isn't zero, but the same property holds.
 
hapefish said:
this is true, but I think if the curl is nonzero at some point then you could find a surface that makes the surface integral nonzero (you would need some sort of continuity assumption to prove this). Since this problem is talking about an arbitrary curve, L, I believe the only possibility is to show that the curl itself is zero.

I could imagine, however, a problem stated "for an arbitrary path on the surface, S, show that..." in which the curl isn't zero, but the same property holds.

Consider a single-turn copper coil with a mixture of ∂B/∂t of both polarities thruout its area. Curl of the E field = -∂B/∂t could be nonzero everywhere within its planar area but ∫curl E*dA = 0 is entirely possible, so that the circulation of E (the emf) around the coil would be zero too.

Of course, what you say is entirely correct for a lamellar field like gravity or electrostatic E field.
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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