Using Laplace Transform to Solve Differential Equations

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around solving a differential equation using the Laplace transform, specifically the equation \(\ddot y (t)+\omega ^2 y(t)=f(t)\) with initial conditions \(y(0)=\dot y (0)=0\). Participants are exploring the application of the Laplace transform and its properties to find a solution.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss applying the Laplace transform to the differential equation and express challenges in finding the inverse Laplace transform of \(\frac{1}{s^2+\omega^2}\). There are attempts to use the residue theorem for evaluating integrals, and questions arise about the correctness of results and interpretations of the convolution property.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided guidance on looking up the inverse Laplace transform in tables and have pointed out potential mistakes in the calculations. There is an ongoing exploration of the implications of these findings, with no explicit consensus reached on the final form of the solution.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of homework rules, which may limit the information they can share or the methods they can use. There is also a focus on ensuring that assumptions about the functions involved are critically examined.

fluidistic
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Homework Statement


I'd like to solve a DE using Laplace transform.
[itex]\ddot y (t)+\omega ^2 y(t)=f(t)[/itex] for all t>0.
Initial conditions: [itex]y(0)=\dot y (0)=0[/itex]. The dot denotes the derivative with respect to t.

Homework Equations



[itex]\mathbb{L}( \dot y )=s\mathbb{L}( y )-y(0)[/itex].
Convolution: if [itex]h=f*g[/itex] then [itex]H(s)=G(s)F(s)[/itex].

The Attempt at a Solution


I apply the LT on the DE: [itex]s^2 Y(s)-sy(0)-\dot y(0)+\omega ^2 Y(s)=F(s)[/itex]. Therefore [itex]Y(s)=\frac{F(s)}{s^2+\omega ^2 }[/itex]. Now I can use the convolution property: [itex]y(t)=f(t)*\mathbb{L ^{-1}} \left ( \frac{1}{s^2+\omega ^2} \right )[/itex].
Unfortunately I do not find the inverse Laplace transform of [itex]\left ( \frac{1}{s^2+\omega ^2} \right )[/itex] in any table.
So it means I must perform the integral [itex]\frac{1}{2\pi i }\int _{\sigma -i \infty}^{\sigma + i \infty }e^{st}\frac{1}{s^2+\omega ^2 }ds[/itex]. Any help for this is appreciated.

Edit: Let [itex]f(z)=\frac{e^{zt}}{z^2+\omega ^2}[/itex]. I need to employ the residue theorem. The denominator can be rewritten into [itex](z-i \omega )(z+i \omega)[/itex]. So the residue at [itex]z=i\omega[/itex] is worth [itex]\lim _{z \to i \omega } \frac{e^{zt}}{z+i \omega }=\frac{e^{i \omega t }}{2i \omega}[/itex]. While the residue at [itex]z=-i \omega[/itex] is worth [itex]-\frac{e^{-i \omega t}}{2i \omega }[/itex].
 
Last edited:
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fluidistic said:

Homework Statement


I'd like to solve a DE using Laplace transform.
[itex]\ddot y (t)+\omega ^2 y(t)=f(t)[/itex] for all t>0.
Initial conditions: [itex]y(0)=\dot y (0)=0[/itex]. The dot denotes the derivative with respect to t.

Homework Equations



[itex]\mathbb{L}( \dot y )=s\mathbb{L}( y )-y(0)[/itex].
Convolution: if [itex]h=f*g[/itex] then [itex]H(s)=G(s)F(s)[/itex].

The Attempt at a Solution


I apply the LT on the DE: [itex]s^2 Y(s)-sy(0)-\dot y(0)+\omega ^2 Y(s)=F(s)[/itex]. Therefore [itex]Y(s)=\frac{F(s)}{s^2+\omega ^2 }[/itex]. Now I can use the convolution property: [itex]y(t)=f(t)*\mathbb{L ^{-1}} \left ( \frac{1}{s^2+\omega ^2} \right )[/itex].
Unfortunately I do not find the inverse Laplace transform of [itex]\left ( \frac{1}{s^2+\omega ^2} \right )[/itex] in any table.
It is in the table. Look for ##\frac{\omega}{s^2+\omega^2}##. Remember ω is just a constant here.
So it means I must perform the integral [itex]\frac{1}{2\pi i }\int _{\sigma -i \infty}^{\sigma + i \infty }e^{st}\frac{1}{s^2+\omega ^2 }ds[/itex]. Any help for this is appreciated.

Edit: Let [itex]f(z)=\frac{e^{zt}}{z^2+\omega ^2}[/itex]. I need to employ the residue theorem. The denominator can be rewritten into [itex](z-i \omega )(z+i \omega)[/itex]. So the residue at [itex]z=i\omega[/itex] is worth [itex]\lim _{z \to i \omega } \frac{e^{zt}}{z+i \omega }=\frac{e^{i \omega t }}{2i \omega}[/itex]. While the residue at [itex]z=-i \omega[/itex] is worth [itex]-\frac{e^{-i \omega t}}{2i \omega }[/itex].
So what do you get when you sum those and simplify?
 
vela said:
It is in the table. Look for ##\frac{\omega}{s^2+\omega^2}##. Remember ω is just a constant here.
Ok thanks! I'd rather look when I'm done, just for the surprise of getting a good result.
So what do you get when you sum those and simplify?

What I had done is [itex]\mathbb{L ^{-1}} \left ( \frac{1}{s^2+\omega ^2} \right )=\frac{1}{2\pi i }\int _{\sigma -i \infty}^{\sigma + i \infty }e^{st}\frac{1}{s^2+\omega ^2 }ds[/itex]. When performing the complex integral, I had that it's worth [itex]2\pi i \sum _i res f(z)[/itex]. So that the [itex]2 \pi i[/itex]'s terms cancel out. So that the inverse LT of [itex]\frac{1}{s^2+\omega^2}[/itex] should be just what you said, the sum of the residues. This gave me [itex]\frac{i}{2\omega } (e^{i\omega t }-e^{-i \omega t })=\frac{i \sin (\omega t)}{\omega}[/itex].

Therefore [itex]y(t)=f(t)*\frac{i\sin (\omega t )}{\omega}=\int _0 ^t f(t-\tau )i \frac{\sin (\omega \tau)}{\omega}d\tau[/itex].
Does this look possible? I'm going to check out the table.

Edit: I'm wrong it seems. I should have found [itex]\frac{\sin (\omega t )}{\omega}[/itex]?
 
Last edited:
Yeah, sine has an i in the denominator, so you should have just left it down there. Other than that extra factor of i, your results look good.
 
vela said:
Yeah, sine has an i in the denominator, so you should have just left it down there. Other than that extra factor of i, your results look good.

Thank you vela, I found out the mistake.
 

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