Using Limit Definition of the Derivative?

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SUMMARY

The limit definition of a derivative, expressed as lim of (f(x)-f(a)) / (x-a) as x approaches a, confirms the existence of a derivative at a point if the limit yields a defined value. However, to establish differentiability at x=a, one must also verify that the function is continuous, smooth, and non-vertical at that point. For instance, the derivative of f(x)=(x^2)(sinx) at x=0 is 0, which is sufficient proof of differentiability at that point. The discussion also raises questions about the differentiability of functions like the Cantor function, highlighting the complexities involved.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of limit definitions in calculus
  • Knowledge of differentiability and continuity concepts
  • Familiarity with Newton's quotient
  • Basic understanding of functions like f(x)=(x^2)(sinx) and the Cantor function
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  • Study the properties of continuous functions and their differentiability
  • Learn about the implications of one-sided limits in calculus
  • Explore the characteristics of the Cantor function and its differentiability
  • Investigate the relationship between continuity, smoothness, and differentiability in various functions
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Students of calculus, mathematics educators, and anyone seeking to deepen their understanding of derivatives and the conditions for differentiability in mathematical functions.

SopwithCamel
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If one uses the limit definition of a derivative (lim of (f(x)-f(a)) / (x-a)) as x approaches a) on a function and you get a value (ie. it is not undefined) does that mean the derivative of the function at that point exists? In other words, even if the limit definition of the derivative works, do you still need to determine whether the function is continuous, smooth and non-vertical at x=a in order to know that the function is differentiable at x=a?

For example,

The derivative of f(x)=(x^2)(sinx) at x=0 is 0 (using limit definition). Is that all the proof needed to show that the function is differentiable at x=0?
 
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A function is differentiable at a point if the limit of the Newton quotients exist at that point.
try to convince yourself that the function is automatically continuous at the point
 
SopwithCamel said:
If one uses the limit definition of a derivative (lim of (f(x)-f(a)) / (x-a)) as x approaches a) on a function and you get a value (ie. it is not undefined) does that mean the derivative of the function at that point exists?

http://www.mathcs.org/analysis/reals/cont/derivat.html
You'd normally just say $$f^\prime(a)=\lim_{(x-a)\rightarrow 0}\frac{f(a+(x-a))-f(a)}{x-a}$$... follows from the definition of a derivative. If the limit exists then the function is differentiable at point a by definition. (I wrote it like that to draw a link with the general definition of the derivative.))

In other words, even if the limit definition of the derivative works, do you still need to determine whether the function is continuous, smooth and non-vertical at x=a in order to know that the function is differentiable at x=a?
Well, in each of those cases, the limit won't converge will it? Well... the above is basically a one-sided limit: see below.

The derivative of f(x)=(x^2)(sinx) at x=0 is 0 (using limit definition). Is that all the proof needed to show that the function is differentiable at x=0?
In this case, yep.
However, it gets conceptually hairy when we include things like the Cantor function.

Is the Cantor function "continuous"? Is it differentiable?
 
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