Using the Mean Value Theorem to Prove Inequality for e^x and 1 + x

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on using the Mean Value Theorem (MVT) to prove the inequality \( e^x > 1 + x \) for all \( x > 0 \). The MVT states that for a continuous and differentiable function \( f \), there exists a point \( c \) in the interval \( (a,b) \) such that \( f'(c) = \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a} \). The participants explore proving the inequality through induction and the application of MVT, concluding that \( e^c > 1 \) for \( c > 0 \). Additionally, they discuss the implications of \( f'(0) \) existing in the context of functional equations.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Mean Value Theorem (MVT)
  • Basic calculus concepts, including derivatives and continuity
  • Familiarity with exponential functions, specifically \( e^x \)
  • Knowledge of functional equations and their properties
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the proof of the Mean Value Theorem in detail
  • Explore the properties of exponential functions and their derivatives
  • Learn about induction proofs in mathematical analysis
  • Investigate functional equations and their implications on derivatives
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Students in calculus, mathematicians interested in analysis, and educators teaching the Mean Value Theorem and its applications in proving inequalities.

VeeEight
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The following two questions are practice problems that I have been stuck on.

Homework Statement



Use the Mean Value Theorem to show that e^x > 1 + x for all x > 0

Homework Equations



Mean Value Theorem: If f: [a,b] to R is continuous on [a,b] and differentiable on (a,b) then there exists a point c in (a,b) where f(c) = f(b) - f(a)/b - a

The Attempt at a Solution



I can do the question by induction so I was thinking about first showing the inequality is true for an x > 0, and then using the Mean Value Theorem in the second step to show that this implies ee^x > x + 2 for all x > 0. The only thing is that I don't know how to use the Mean Value Theorem in this situation - I've tried a few random cases but I can't think of what my interval should be in order to get the desired condition.

The second problem:

Homework Statement



Suppose f'(0) exists and f(x + y) = f(x)f(y) for all x and y. Prove that f' exists for all x.

The Attempt at a Solution



Here are some things I gathered from the given information.

f'(0) exists implies that the limit as x approaches 0 of f(x) - f(0)/x exists.

f'(x + y) = f'(x)f(y) + f'(y)f(x)
so f'(0) = f(x - x) = f'(x)f(-x) + f'(-x)f(x)
and so f'(x)f(-x) + f'(-x)f(x) = the limit as x approaches 0 of f(x) - f(0)/x

I'm not sure if I am just going down the wrong path here since I tried to rearrange the above equation so it can look better but I got nowhere.
 
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f'(c) is the going to be somewhere on an interval [a,b].

For e^x this means that e^c = the average slope on the interval [a,b]
For 1+x this means the f'(c) = 1 = the average slope on the interval [a,b]

We know the e^c > 1 where c > 0
 

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