Graduate Validity of Scalar Field Lagrangian with Linear and Quadratic Terms

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The discussion centers on the validity of including a linear term in the Lagrangian for a single scalar field, specifically whether the Lagrangian $$\mathscr{L} = \phi \square \phi + c_1 \phi + c_2 \phi^2$$ is acceptable. It is noted that the presence of the linear term leads to energy not being bounded from below, complicating perturbation theory and preventing it from serving as a vacuum state. To address this, a field shift is proposed to eliminate the linear term, reverting to a more stable form of the Lagrangian. The conversation also highlights that as long as the quadratic term has the correct sign, the theory remains valid. Ultimately, the inclusion of a linear term can be managed through field redefinitions, maintaining the integrity of the theory.
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Is a term proportional to ##\phi## valid in a scalar Lagrangian?
Hi, if I want to construct the most general Lagrangian of a single scalar field up to two fields and two derivatives, I usually see that is
$$\mathscr{L} = \phi \square \phi + c_2 \phi^2$$ i.e. the Klein-Gordon Lagrangian.
My question is, would be valid the Lagrangian
$$\mathscr{L} = \phi \square \phi + c_1 \phi + c_2 \phi^2$$
?
 
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With a linear term, the energy is not bounded from below. So this is usually not considered. This is a problem for applying perturbation theory, this indicates that one is expanding around a field configuration that cannot be used as a vacuum. So one then shifts ## \phi \rightarrow \phi - \frac{c_1}{2c_2} ## which gets rid of the linear term.
 
nrqed said:
With a linear term, the energy is not bounded from below.
A linear term shifts the location of the minimum of the potential and shifts the overall potential by a finite constant. (speaking loosely about potential densities as potentials)
 
With the linear term and the quadratic term the energy is still bounded from below provided ##c_2## has the "right sign". So it's a fine theory (as ##\phi^3## theory is not though it's treated at length in some textbooks to have a simple model to explain perturbative renormalization theory, e.g., in Collin's Renormalization; adding a ##\phi^4## term makes it again a theory with the Hamiltonian bounded from below).

For the free field here you can just introduce a new field shifted field as explained in #2, and you are back at the usual free theory.
 
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Ok! Thank you!
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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