Consider this quote from Mandl and Shaw, p. 237(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

...this interaction coulpes the field [tex]W_{\alpha}(x)[/tex] to the leptonic vector current. Hence it must be a vector field, and the W particles are vector bosons with spin 1.

Could someone explain this for me? I do not understand the "hence", because I do not know what a vector current means. Also, why does a vector field imply bosons with spin 1?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Vector currents, vector fields and bosons

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**