Consider this quote from Mandl and Shaw, p. 237(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

...this interaction coulpes the field [tex]W_{\alpha}(x)[/tex] to the leptonic vector current. Hence it must be a vector field, and the W particles are vector bosons with spin 1.

Could someone explain this for me? I do not understand the "hence", because I do not know what a vector current means. Also, why does a vector field imply bosons with spin 1?

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# Vector currents, vector fields and bosons

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