Vector Laplacian: Scalar or Vector?

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olgerm
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according to this page https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vector_Laplacian value of Vector_Laplacian is vector, but according to this page https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/D'Alembertian value of Vector_Laplacian is scalar

Equation block: the d'Alembertian box = partial mu partial mu = g^{mu nu} partial nu partial mu = (1/c^2) d^2/dt^2 - d^2/dx^2 - d^2/dy^2 - d^2/dz^2, then = (1/c^2) d^2/dt^2 - nabla^2 = (1/c^2) d^2/dt^2 - Delta.

Is on of these pages wrong or I misunderstand it?

I am asking because I want to know what does Δ2 equal to in this
Wave equation for the magnetic vector potential A' in Coulomb gauge: nabla squared A' minus mu0 epsilon0 times the second time derivative of A' equals minus mu0 J plus mu0 epsilon0 times the gradient of the time derivative of phi'.
and this
Wave equation for the vector potential A' in Lorenz-type form: the vector Laplacian of A' minus mu0 epsilon0 times the second time derivative of A' equals the d'Alembertian of A' equals minus mu0 times the current density J.
equation on this https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mathematical_descriptions_of_the_electromagnetic_field#Coulomb_gauge page.
 
The d'Alembertian is a differential operator. You can apply it to a scalar and get a scalar, or you can apply it to a vector and get a vector.
 
So since magnetic potential A in this equation
Wave equation for the magnetic vector potential in Lorenz gauge: the vector Laplacian of A' minus mu0 epsilon0 times the second time derivative of A' equals minus mu0 times J plus mu0 epsilon0 times the gradient of the time derivative of phi'.
is vector ##\nabla^2=(\sum_{i=1}^3(\frac{\partial^2 A}{\partial x_i*\partial x_1});\sum_{i=1}^3(\frac{\partial^2 A}{\partial x_i*\partial x_2});\sum_{i=1}^3(\frac{\partial^2 A}{\partial x_i*\partial x_3}))## not ##\nabla^2=\sum_{i=1}^3(\frac{\partial^2 A}{\partial x_i^2})##?
These are Cartesian coordinates.
 
It is unclear what you intend to write with these expressions. In particular, it is unclear what you intend for ##A## to be (the vector, the vector components, etc). I strongly suggest that you do not write vectors on component form (x;y;z), but instead use basis vectors. This will make it much clearer what is intended.

The Laplace operator applied to a vector in Cartesian coordinates is such that the ##x## component of ##\nabla^2 \vec A## is equal to ##\nabla^2 A_x##, where ##A_x## is the ##x## component of ##\vec A##.
 
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olgerm said:
A is vector-field. I am trying to find out what does ##\nabla^2 A##, on this Wikipedia page
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mathematical_descriptions_of_the_electromagnetic_field#Gauge_freedom , equal to.
Is it that ##(\nabla^2 A)_i=\frac{\partial^2 A_i}{\partial x_i^2}## or ##(\nabla^2 A)_j=\sum_{i=1}^3(\frac{\partial^2 A_i}{\partial x_i \cdot \partial x_j})## or ##\nabla^2 A=\sum_{i=1}^3(\frac{\partial^2 A_i}{\partial x_i^2})##?
Where ##A_i## is the ##i## component of ##\vec A##.
Neither, see my previous post.

Your first option is just one term in the sum, your second is grad(div(A)) and not the Laplacian of A, your third is a scalar.
 
Orodruin said:
Yes. Although this is only valid in Cartesian coordinates.
Ok, thanks.