- #1
StarkRavingMad
It's difficult, especially in hindsight, to assert that we were not justified in fighting in World War II. The world faced a very real threat from a fanatic army bent on conquering and ethnically cleansing not just Europe, but the world. Our involvement liberated Europe and ultimately led to the dramatic growth of a free and stable Germany and Japan.
But what if we framed the events leading up to our entry into the war a little differently than what we typically learn in school.
Through all the time Japan invaded and effectively conquered China from 1931-1937, the US did not get involved. In fact we maintained trade relations with Japan, just as we had for the previous half century. It was their war, not ours.
We refused to get involved in the Eurpoean conflict that started in 1939 as well, which technically had even less to do with us, for a number of reasons, not the least of which was that we were still trying to recover from the Great Depression. We just didn't have the money or resources to effectively wage a war of that scale.
Then in 1940, FDR cuts off supplies to Japan, which could be argued as provocation for war since we had stayed out of their foreign affairs for so long, and now all of a sudden put an embargo on them, even though they didn't do anything to us.
In 1941, they attacked (retaliated?) against the closest military target of opportunity. Our response is swift and heated. Using the heightened emotional state of the American people after the "cowardly unprovoked attack", the President gets congress to agree to a declaration of war against our enemies and within WEEKS mobilizes our troops against...
... Germany?
The sudden rise in manufacturing needed to supply a two-front war created a huge boom in our economy, having the "side effect" of lifting us out of our economic rut... or could that have been FDR's only true motive all along? All accomplished with unilatteral decisions and secret maneuvering, ie lying to the public.
I'm sure you see where I am going with this.
My personal answer, btw, even after framing (spinning) it this way, is still, IMHO... Yes.
Discuss amongst yourselves. I'll be waiting behind this asbestos wall.
But what if we framed the events leading up to our entry into the war a little differently than what we typically learn in school.
Through all the time Japan invaded and effectively conquered China from 1931-1937, the US did not get involved. In fact we maintained trade relations with Japan, just as we had for the previous half century. It was their war, not ours.
We refused to get involved in the Eurpoean conflict that started in 1939 as well, which technically had even less to do with us, for a number of reasons, not the least of which was that we were still trying to recover from the Great Depression. We just didn't have the money or resources to effectively wage a war of that scale.
Then in 1940, FDR cuts off supplies to Japan, which could be argued as provocation for war since we had stayed out of their foreign affairs for so long, and now all of a sudden put an embargo on them, even though they didn't do anything to us.
In 1941, they attacked (retaliated?) against the closest military target of opportunity. Our response is swift and heated. Using the heightened emotional state of the American people after the "cowardly unprovoked attack", the President gets congress to agree to a declaration of war against our enemies and within WEEKS mobilizes our troops against...
... Germany?
The sudden rise in manufacturing needed to supply a two-front war created a huge boom in our economy, having the "side effect" of lifting us out of our economic rut... or could that have been FDR's only true motive all along? All accomplished with unilatteral decisions and secret maneuvering, ie lying to the public.
I'm sure you see where I am going with this.
My personal answer, btw, even after framing (spinning) it this way, is still, IMHO... Yes.
Discuss amongst yourselves. I'll be waiting behind this asbestos wall.