Wave Function Doubt and Derivation

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the wave function used in the Schrödinger Wave Equation, specifically the forms of the wave function and their validity. Participants are exploring the implications of complex components in wave functions and their derivation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are questioning the correctness of two different forms of the wave function and discussing the derivation of the one-dimensional Schrödinger equation (1DSE). There is an exploration of whether all wave functions must have a complex component and the implications of this on the nature of waves.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants suggesting that substituting the wave function forms into the Schrödinger equation could clarify which is the correct solution. There is also a focus on understanding the nature of wave functions and their complex components.

Contextual Notes

Participants express confusion regarding the necessity of complex terms in wave functions and the derivation process of the 1DSE. There is an emphasis on the importance of understanding these concepts rather than simply deriving them.

sarvesh0303
Messages
61
Reaction score
2

Homework Statement



I was reading up on the Wave Function used in the Schrödinger Wave Equation. However one source said that
ψ(x,t)=e^(-i/hbar*(px-Et))
Another source had this
ψ(x,t)=e^(i/hbar*(px-Et))

Which one of these is true and could someone give a derivation for the correct wavefunction?

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution

 
Physics news on Phys.org
You can see for yourself by substituting into the 1DSE.
In fact - that is an important exercise: do that and get back to us.
 
I know I can! But I want to try deriving the 1DSE by using this value. So I want to know another way of deriving it. I read that it can be derived by taking
ψ(x,t)=A(cos(2∏x/λ-2∏ηt)+isin(2∏x/λ-2∏ηt))

where η=frequency
and then the euler formula was used.

My doubt with this derivation is that would every wave (its wavefunction) always be of the form mentioned above.
If so then since isin(2∏x/λ-2∏ηt) is a complex term, then wouldn't it imply that every wave must have a complex component?
This part really confuses me!
 
sarvesh0303 said:
I know I can! But I want to try deriving the 1DSE by using this value.
The 1DSE is not really something you derive is it? You will benefit by substituting both forms of the wavefunction you were asking about into the Schrödinger equation to see which one is the "real" solution. Have you tried this yet? If not - do it. If you have, please report what you found.
So I want to know another way of deriving it.
"it" what? The wavefunction for a free particle or the 1DSE? You have mentioned trying to derive both now.
My doubt with this derivation is that would every wave (its wavefunction) always be of the form mentioned above.
If so then since isin(2∏x/λ-2∏ηt) is a complex term, then wouldn't it imply that every wave must have a complex component?
This part really confuses me!
In general, wave-functions are complex - this is correct. Why would this confuse you? It is why you have to premultiply by the complex conjugate before integrating.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K