Wave vs. Particle-Like Behavior

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The discussion centers on the wave-particle duality of quanta, suggesting that particles may simply be the result of wave interactions rather than distinct entities. It is noted that quanta exhibit wave-like properties even in isolation and do not display particle-like behavior without interaction. The conversation highlights the challenge of reconciling the concept of charge with wave functions, as current understanding does not fully explain how charge arises from wave interactions. Participants debate whether the duality concept is necessary, arguing that a single formulation in quantum mechanics can describe all phenomena without requiring a switch between wave and particle descriptions. Ultimately, the conversation emphasizes the complexity of interpreting quantum mechanics and the need for a deeper understanding of its foundational principles.
  • #61
On the contrary, that thought is anti-creationist. Only an intelligent being could design rules so complex and disjointed. The laws of a universe without a creator should flow as inevitably as 2 + 2 = 4. Otherwise, how can you not see a designer behind them?
 
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  • #62
peter0302 said:
I was referring to DCQE (which I know Copenhagenists think is no big deal), and one of the recent Wheeler-style exerpiments:

http://arxiv.org/pdf/quant-ph/0610241

which I quote:

"The quantum “mystery which cannot go away” (in Feynman’s words) of wave-particle duality is illustrated in a striking way by Wheeler’s delayed-choice GedankenExperiment. "

I'm going to make an observation about the experiment quoted above. Bascially, it splits a beam into two separate paths, then recombines them and looks for interference. If you look for which path was followed, the interference goes away.

Up to this point the experiment would be consistent with a wave description. But then they do two things:

1. They contrive to operate the apparatus "one photon at a time".

2. They make the choice of whether to observe the path AFTER the photon beam has already been split.

It's a very impressive experiment but I have to point out one peculiar aspect which leaves room for a shadow of doubt about the intended conclusion: the interference pattern is NOT based on the path length difference. It's created AFTER the "beams" are recombined using something called a "KDP electro-optic modulator".

(edit:) My mistake: the EOM activates the second beam-splitter. Tilting the beam splitter varies the relative phase. Which takes place at the point of recombination.)

The whole point of the experiment is to show that the beams take one definite path if observed, and both paths simulataneously if not observed: "quantum wierdness". But wouldn't it be more convincing if the observed interference was caused by the path length difference? Yet that's not how they chose to do it.
 
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  • #63
Isn't it because the beams always take both paths simultaneously until detection? Thus, the interference wouldn't be due to the path-length differene, but rather just due to the beamsplitters.
 
  • #64
peter0302 said:
Isn't it because the beams always take both paths simultaneously until detection? Thus, the interference wouldn't be due to the path-length differene, but rather just due to the beamsplitters.

Well, I think that's my point. Since the interference is due to something that happens at the beamsplitters, I don't think you can conclude that the photon took both paths simultaneously.

What I mean is that there is still a viable wave interpretation. Case 1, no recombination, the wave was split into path A or path B at the first beamsplitter. So there's no interference at the detectors. Case 2, with "recombination", you now have a device which sets up standing waves of multiple reflection between the second beamsplitter and the two detectors with the net effect that all the wave energy ends up in one of the detectors. I know that sounds farfetched, but it would seemingly have been easy to rule out such a scenario by letting the interference be governed by the path length difference. That's why I say it was peculiar that they didn't set up the experiment in this way. Because it leaves a loophole for the wave theory to survive.

That's what I mean by the wave-particle duality. For every particle explanation, there is a corresponding wave-based explanation which also works. The advantage of the wave-based explanations, where they exist, is that they provide a realistic mechanism for understanding what happens. It doesn't seem like the particle theories can ever do that.
 
  • #65
No, they can't, and if you read my other thread about the Afshar experiment, assuming I'm correct that the grid will never alter the detection rate, it literally means that the photons pass through the grid as though it wasn't there. That another area where the particle model breaks down completely. That's why I asked at the beginning of this thread whether we can consider particle "collision" as simply the interaction of two waves at a randomly chosen point in space.
 
  • #66
ZapperZ said:
What recent entanglement experiments? As far as I can tell, the experiments themselves are showing that large classes of local realistic theory have been disproven by the experiment, and that the results are consistent with QM. Read a thread in the General Physics forum on Recent Noteworthy Papers, especially on the most recent experiment testing the Leggett inequality.

So here, it appears that QM has a huge leg up on your speculation.

Zz.

I guess this is a typo and what you meant is that in addition to (all) local realistic theories, now also large classes of non-local realistic theories have been disproven.
 
  • #67
Maybe. I don't think FTL theories have been disproven, especially not if one allows backwards-in-time signaling. That would be non-local, non-temporal realism.
 
  • #68
AFAIK, Bohmian Mechanics isn't in those classes which have been disproven, even though it is non-local realistic.
 
  • #69
Bohmian mechanics is basically the same as pilot wave, right? I think the pilot wave idea is probably pretty close to what I've been suggesting in this thread.
 
  • #70
peter0302 said:
On the contrary, that thought is anti-creationist. Only an intelligent being could design rules so complex and disjointed. The laws of a universe without a creator should flow as inevitably as 2 + 2 = 4. Otherwise, how can you not see a designer behind them?

If you don't regard things like that as theological statements I don't think I can express to you what I'm talking about. If you're confident that you know what the nature of the universe is and therefore what its governing rules must be like go ahead and run with that but don't use it to critique science. (Using a priori beliefs about the universe to critique science is the way I'm saying that you're similar to a creationist, I'm not saying that your doctrine is similar to theirs.)
 
  • #71
I really don't want to give the moderators any more justification to lock this thread than they already have, but I disagree that my statement is theological. What I'm saying is that a simple theory is more likely to be correct, and therefore I personally favor theories involving small numbers of axioms to theories that just happen to fit the experimental data with no underlying understanding of why.
 
  • #72
peter0302 said:
... I disagree that my statement is theological. What I'm saying is that a simple theory is more likely to be correct...

You said "Only an intelligent being could design rules so complex and disjointed." I think you've made my point for me. But I don't think it's a reason to close the thread, I just think it's a reason to stop saying "QM cannot be true and accurate because it doesn't fit my aesthetics for what scientific theory should be like."
 
  • #73
"Only an intelligent being could design rules so complex and disjointed."
If the rules cannot be simplified to simpler, more fundamental postulates? Yes, I stand by that statement. If you look at the evolution of every physical system, be it cosmological, biological, or what have you, what we see again and again are very simple rules being applied across vast scales of space and/or time to create the complexity that exists today. The idea that there is extraordinary complexity at the most fundamental of levels runs counter to our experience in other areas of science.

And for the record, I never said QM cannot be true and accurate. I said QM doesn't tell us the whole story.
 
  • #74
peter0302 said:
Yes, I stand by that statement.

But do you stand by the assertion that it isn't theological?

peter0302 said:
And for the record, I never said QM cannot be true and accurate. I said QM doesn't tell us the whole story.

You're correct. I'm sorry, I mischaracterized what you were saying.
 
  • #75
You're right, I should stop at "simpler rules are more likely to be correct" and leave my subjective belief as to why out of it. :)
 
  • #76
I didn't follow the whole converstion and I'm pretty ill, right now. My conclusions could ground on a fever delusion.

Looking back to the equation of motion could help.

1.) Particles move according to the solutions of the Hamilton function H(p,q;t) = pv-L(q,v;t) with L the Lagrangian. The differential equations to be solved are dH/dq = dv/dt, -dH/dv = dq/dt and dH/dt =- dL/dt.
The equations are solved for space coordinates.
2.) Maxwell's equations are solved for the electric and magnetic field vector E and B. Because of the form (second derivative in space and in time) the solution consitst of sinand cosin (or written as an exponential).
3.) Schrödinger equation is solved for something with no physical meaning \Psi leading to a probability. (second derivative in space and one in time). Must also lead to a wavefunction but in the complex domain.

It depends on the potential and the specific equation of motion you have to use to describe potentials actions.

Probably it has been mentioned in a previous reply: de Broglie found out that each particle can be seen as a wave through the connection E = \hbar \omega and p = \hbar \k. That's like building a bridge between Lagrange and Maxwell. Another bridge between Schrödinger and Lagrange could be the density of states.
 
  • #77
In quantum physics, the particle or wavicle, can be seen as a 'wavepacket' of waves that cancel each other out except where the particle is, AFAIK, probably what Tanja says above. The remaining wave segments which don't cancel each other out then explain how the wavicle is "smeared out" in probability over a range of positions or impulses. So these waves are not like classical waves, they do not reflect a certain classical state. In regards to a classical state, the uncertainty remains even when described as a wave.

(The interference pattern can be seen only with multiple photons, even though each photon's probabilities are determined by it.)

[Edit added:] Meaning, whether a photon behaves more like a particle or like a wave in a specific situation, it still won't have a certain position and impuls, not even in terms of a wave. It will be either here or there when measured, rather than distributed over the area like a classical wave.
 
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