Weak Convergence to Normal Distribution

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the weak convergence of the sequence $(1/\sqrt{n})(\sum_{m=1}^{n}X_n-n/2)$ to a normal distribution as \( n \rightarrow \infty \). The random variables \( X_n \) are defined such that \( P(X_n=n)=n^{-2} \) and \( P(X_n=1)=P(X_n=0)=\frac{1}{2}(1-n^{-2}) \). Participants agree that this scenario is a direct application of the Central Limit Theorem, which states that the normalized sum of independent random variables converges to a normal distribution. The mean of \( X_m \) approaches \( \frac{1}{2} \) for large \( m \), supporting the conclusion that the sum \( S_n = \sum_{m=1}^{n} X_m \) behaves as expected under the theorem.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of weak convergence in probability theory
  • Familiarity with the Central Limit Theorem (CLT)
  • Knowledge of independent random variables and their distributions
  • Basic concepts of probability, including expected value and variance
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the Central Limit Theorem in detail, focusing on its applications and implications
  • Explore weak convergence and its significance in probability theory
  • Investigate the properties of independent random variables and their distributions
  • Learn about convergence in distribution and its relation to normal distributions
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Mathematicians, statisticians, and students studying probability theory, particularly those interested in the Central Limit Theorem and its applications in weak convergence to normal distributions.

joypav
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Problem:
Let $X_n$ be independent random variables such that $X_1 = 1$, and for $n \geq 2$,

$P(X_n=n)=n^{-2}$ and $P(X_n=1)=P(X_n=0)=\frac{1}{2}(1-n^{-2})$.

Show $(1/\sqrt{n})(\sum_{m=1}^{n}X_n-n/2)$ converges weakly to a normal distribution as $n \rightarrow \infty$.Thoughts:

My professor sent this problem over email and I am first off wondering about the notation. I think that the last line is meant to read $(\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}})(\frac{\sum_{m=1}^{n}X_m-n}{2})$? (I assume the summation index was simply a typo and that it is all over 2 not just the n?)

If that is the case, then I am thinking this is a consequence of the Central Limit Theorem.
Which has conclusion,

$\frac{S_n - \mu n}{\sigma \sqrt{n}} \implies \chi$

where $\chi$ is $N(0,1)$.
 
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joypav said:
Problem:
Let $X_n$ be independent random variables such that $X_1 = 1$, and for $n \geq 2$,

$P(X_n=n)=n^{-2}$ and $P(X_n=1)=P(X_n=0)=\frac{1}{2}(1-n^{-2})$.

Show $(1/\sqrt{n})(\sum_{m=1}^{n}X_n-n/2)$ converges weakly to a normal distribution as $n \rightarrow \infty$.Thoughts:

My professor sent this problem over email and I am first off wondering about the notation. I think that the last line is meant to read $(\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}})(\frac{\sum_{m=1}^{n}X_m-n}{2})$? (I assume the summation index was simply a typo and that it is all over 2 not just the n?)

If that is the case, then I am thinking this is a consequence of the Central Limit Theorem.
Which has conclusion,

$\frac{S_n - \mu n}{\sigma \sqrt{n}} \implies \chi$

where $\chi$ is $N(0,1)$.
I am not a probabilist, but I think that your formula should read $\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}} \Bigl(\left(\sum_{m=1}^{n} X_m\right)- \frac{n}{2}\Bigr)$.

If $m$ is large, then $X_m$ takes each of the values $0$ and $1$ with a probability close to $\frac12$ (and the large value $m$ with a very small probability $m^{-2}$). So the mean value of $X_m$ will be close to $\frac12$, and the mean value of $S_n = \sum_{m=1}^{n} X_m$ will be close to $\frac n2$. This seems to make it plausible that your formula should somehow relate to the central limit theorem.
 
Last edited:

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