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The geodesic deviation equation relates the coordinate acceleration between adjacent geodesics to tidal forces.

If I drop 2 balls together from the top of a building they fall towards the earth but on the way down there will be an attraction between the two. Is it correct to say that the free fall corresponds to acceleration,

**g**, along the geodesic and the attraction between them is due to the deviation between their respective geodesics (not

**g**) . But if that is true, isn't there also a tidal force associated with the vertical motion? How is this accounted for?