- 6,735
- 2,437
JakeStan said:Cool, thanks for the answer, I'll keep digging.
You can go through the derivation by yourself, it is found in (almost) every intro textbook in QM.
JakeStan said:Cool, thanks for the answer, I'll keep digging.
unseensoul said:That's confusing...![]()
Isn't there a easier way to explain it without the use of mathematics?
malawi_glenn said:well no, since then it would imply that it is the probe that is altering the system - not that it is inherent by the system itself as QM formalism will show you!
The HUP is derived from the axioms of QM and there is nowhere that the probe which you use to determine the position of the system (particle) shows up in the derivation. HUP is obtained by simply using the anticommutator of the position and momentum operator.
nfelddav said:Sorry... but no. as you've probably noticed by know, QM is basically a purely mathematical theory. The physical representation (if there is one) not part of the theory at all. The only way to explain it is in the mathematics, because that's really all there is.
But for this I have to go the other direction: You seem to be dismissing a physical representation which sounds very reasonable. As far as I know, many/most people think there must be some physical explanation for the mathematics of QM.
HUP is obtained by simply using the anticommutator of the position and momentum operator, but it is not unreasonable to assume that something physical makes it happen. I've seen the argument that the probe alters the system put forth a lot.
malawi_glenn said:So in the first section in your answer you stresses that QM theory is just math math math.. then you switch position?
nfelddav said:Yeah that's just about it...
I was stressing that if you want to understand anything about QM, you have to do the math, because as Tac-Tics says, we don't know what happens in that "black-box."
Then the second part was the observation that something does.
A collision would be an example of something physical, yes. Sorry, I hate imprecise language as well, but I'm having trouble on precise formulation. Physical as in not just the mathematical formulation: that which causes the system to behave in the way described by the operator.
Something which "has material existence" (dictionary definition).
unseensoul said:By the way, if the wave-behaviour of a particle is related to where the particle might be found (wavefunction) why do particles diffract as well (in this situation it seems to behave like a REAL wave)? I can't relate both concepts...
Let me modify a phrase above to be more in line with the way physicists speak and see if it helps:unseensoul said:By the way, if the wave-behaviour of a particle is related to where the particle might be found (wavefunction) why do particles diffract as well (in this situation it seems to behave like a REAL wave)? I can't relate both concepts...
According to QM it ALWAYS behaves as a probability density wave.unseensoul said:(in this situation it seems to behave like a REAL wave)
Only when it's isolated from the environment.newbee said:According to QM it ALWAYS behaves as a probability density wave.
Fredrik said:Simultaneous measurements of two non-commuting observables don't make sense in QM. Hurkyl knows that. He may have taken it a little too far by claiming that we can imagine a device that performs both measurements at once, but he was definitely right to point out that the uncertainty principle isn't about limitations of measuring devices. It's about a property of state vectors / wave functions.
A few thoughts about the possibility of a device that performs "a simultaneous measurement of two non-commuting observables" on a system... Let's take a spin-1/2 system as an example, and first consider an apparatus that "measures" the z component of the spin. Such a device only needs to produce an inhomogeneous magnetic field and detect the position of the spin-1/2 particle after it's deflected in one direction or the other by the inhomogeneous magnetic field. (Stern-Gerlach experiment).
A device that performs "a simultaneous measurement of the x component and the y component of the spin" would just be a device that produces two inhomogeneous magnetic fields in a location that's surrounded by detectors. It's easy to see what would happen in this case: A magnetic field is a vector quantity, so the "two fields" produced by the device would be equivalent to one that's stronger and pointing in the direction defined by the vector sum of the two field vectors.
I expect something similar to hold in all cases, not just in the case of the spin components of spin-1/2 particles. A "simultaneous measurement of two non-commuting observables" would always turn out to be just one measurement of one observable that isn't one of the two intended.
I agree completely. Trying to extrapolate what we cannot measure is beyond physics. I merely argued that we should acknowledge that something does.malawi_glenn said:And since we don't know what happens, we should not perhaps extrapolate what happens in the "classical" macroscopic world at all.