I've been having issues understanding quantum entanglement and non-locality recently, and certain explanations that I have been told has just made the matter more confusing. The first portion of this thread will be explaining what I know and the second part will contain the questions. First Part: What I understand from entanglement is that a particle becomes connected with another particle, and this generates a phenomenon in which neither particle can any longer be considered independent, but rather intrinsically intertwined to the corresponding entangled particle. Any affects that one particle experiences will affect the other particle instantaneously. To explain quantum entanglement, physicists postulated the idea of non-locality. Non-locality states that an object can affect other objects that are not in its immediate surroundings. Second Part: My first question lies within non-locality. It seems to me that non-locality was postulated because physicists could just not explain why can object is affected by another object at a distance where faster than light speeds would have to be necessary. Is this true? Second question lies within a certain entanglement explanation that I've been told. This explanation goes as follows: "Quantum entanglement does not imply faster than light speeds because nothing is being communicated, rather it's just merely correlation between the particles. If one particle is measured to contain spin up, then the other entangled particle can be sure to contain spin down. Nothing is being communicated; we just know what spin the other particle is going to be." This explanation would make sense to me, although the particles do seem to communicate something. Communication can be seen observed by the other particle always containing an opposite spin. The only to explain this using this explanation is to say that particles always have to be opposite spin to entangle together, although isn't this just the hidden variable theory? Any feedback would be appreciated!