What Happens to the Limit of x^2sin(x)/(1-cos^2(x)) as x Approaches 0?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the limit of the expression (x^2sin(x))/(1-cos^2(x)) as x approaches 0. Participants are exploring the behavior of this limit and the implications of different algebraic manipulations.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss various ways to manipulate the limit expression, including splitting terms and applying known limit results. There is confusion regarding the outcomes of different approaches, particularly concerning the interpretation of limits leading to zero versus infinity.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants sharing their reasoning and questioning the validity of their approaches. Some have reached a consensus that the limit approaches zero, while others express uncertainty about their interpretations and calculations.

Contextual Notes

There is a recurring theme of misunderstanding regarding the application of limit properties and the implications of algebraic manipulation, particularly in the context of limits resulting in indeterminate forms.

travwg33
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I seem to find a problem with the limit
lim(x->0)

(x^2sin(x))
-----------
1-cos^2(x)

using the limit as x approaches 0 of x over sine of x equals 1 we can simplify as such
(x) * (x) * sin(x)
----- ------
sin(x) sin(x)
and this would equal 0

but what if we split it like:
x^2 * sin(x)
----- -------
sin(x) sin(x)
then you get
x * x
----
sin(x)
which equals x and then infinity why is this different did i screw up on the second split?
 
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x*x/sin(x)=(x/sin(x))*x. The first factor approaches 1. The second factor approaches 0. The limit is zero. Same conclusion. I don't know where you see the 'infinity'.
 
(x) * (x) * sin(x)
----- ------
sin(x) sin(x)

is equivalent to

x * x
----
sin(x)

at this point in the second one, we would get zero over zero

using hopital's rule

we take the derivative of the top and then the bottom

giving us

2X/cos(x)

which the limit can be taken of easily

I think that is what you were asking for. right?
 
but what if we split the second function like the first into x over sin(x) times x and then use the limit rule i first referred to and then be just left with the x is there something wrong with doing that? It seems like there must bc it gives a whole different answer but why is doing that wrong
 
travwg33 said:
but what if we split the second function like the first into x over sin(x) times x and then use the limit rule i first referred to and then be just left with the x is there something wrong with doing that? It seems like there must bc it gives a whole different answer but why is doing that wrong

I really don't see why you think it gives a whole different answer. It's still 0, either way. Why do you think it isn't?
 
ok so with this split
x * x
----
sin(x)
without using hopital the
x term equals 1 and ur left with an x
----
sin(x)
 
travwg33 said:
ok so with this split
x * x
----
sin(x)
without using hopital the
x term equals 1 and ur left with an x
----
sin(x)

Right. And x approaches 0, yes? The limit is still 0.
 
hhahaha wow now i feel like a tard yeah it does idk what my prob was there for some reason it was in my head that it was alim to infinity at the end of the problem
 

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