What is a Borel Measurable Function and How to Prove It?

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SUMMARY

The function $\phi(t)=t^{-1}$ is proven to be Borel measurable by demonstrating that it satisfies the criteria of pulling back Borel sets to measurable sets in the domain. Specifically, a function is Borel measurable if it maps Borel sets in the codomain back to sets in the domain's sigma-algebra. The discussion clarifies that for $\phi(t)$ to be Borel measurable, it must be shown that the inverse image of any Borel set under $\phi$ is also a Borel set in the domain.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Borel sigma-algebra, specifically $\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R})$.
  • Knowledge of measurable functions and their properties.
  • Familiarity with the concept of inverse images of functions.
  • Basic proficiency in mathematical notation and TeX formatting.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of Borel sigma-algebras in detail.
  • Learn about measurable functions and their definitions in various contexts.
  • Explore examples of Borel measurable functions beyond $\phi(t)=t^{-1}$.
  • Investigate the implications of Borel measurability in real analysis.
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students in real analysis, and anyone studying measure theory or Borel sets will benefit from this discussion.

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Homework Statement



Prove that the function $\phi(t)=t^{-1}$ is Borel measurable.

Homework Equations



Any measurable function into $ (\mathbb{R},\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}))$, where $ \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R})$ is the Borel sigma algebra of the real numbers $ \mathbb{R}$, is called a Borel measurable function

The Attempt at a Solution



I think I need to prove that t^{-1} is a Borel set, and so prove that it is open? I am quite unclear on the actual definition of a borel measurable function, and that is perhaps my problem.
 
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To get your TeX to show up, enclose it in (for inline / text style) or (for equation style) tags.<br /> <br /> Now, are you familiar with the definition of a measurable function? Say you have two measurable spaces X and Y with sigma-algebras A and B, respectively. A function f:X->Y is (A-B) measurable if it pulls back sets in B to sets in A, i.e. if f<sup>-1</sup>(E) is in A whenever E is in B.<br /> <br /> A Borel measurable function f:X->Y is then an (A-B) measurable function, where B is the Borel sigma-algebra on Y. (Of course for this to make sense, Y has to be a topological space.)
 
So, in order to prove that \phi(t)=t^{-1} is Borel measurable, I need to show that if t^{-1} is a Borel sigma algebra, that {t^{-1}}^-1=t is in t, which it obviously is?
 

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