What is the Fourier Sine Transform of 1?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around determining the Fourier sine transform of the constant function 1. Participants are exploring the implications of the integral's divergence and the conditions under which the transform is defined.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to understand the treatment of the cosine term in the sine transform and questions the legality of omitting it. Some participants discuss the divergence of the integral and suggest the use of an integrating factor to make the integral converge.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, questioning assumptions about the transform's validity, and exploring alternative approaches to handle the divergence. There is no explicit consensus, but some productive suggestions have been made regarding the use of an integrating factor.

Contextual Notes

It is noted that the function f(x) = 1 does not satisfy the usual condition for Fourier transforms, leading to discussions about the divergence of the integral involved in the sine transform.

Hoplite
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Homework Statement


I'm looking to determine the Fourier sine transfom of 1.


Homework Equations


One this site http://mechse.illinois.edu/research/dstn/teaching_files2/fouriertransforms.pdf (page 2) it gives the sine transform as

[tex]\frac{2}{\pi \omega}[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution


However, since the Fourier sine fransform of 1 is defined via,

[tex]\frac{2}{\pi} \int_0^\infty \sin (\omega x) dx ,[/tex]

I figure that its value should be,

[tex]\frac{2}{\pi \omega} -\lim_{L\rightarrow \infty } \frac{2}{\pi \omega} \cos (r L) .[/tex]

It seems like they've just thrown the cosine term away, but is this legal? If so why?
 
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The usual condition for any Fourier transform is

[tex]\int_{-\infty}^\infty |f(x)|\ dx < \infty[/tex]

which f(x) = 1 doesn't satisfy. The sine transform doesn't exist, and the integral for it diverges as you have observed.
 
Excellent. Thanks, LCKrutz.
 
Hoplite said:
It seems like they've just thrown the cosine term away, but is this legal? If so why?
The straightforward integral diverges, so what they probably did was throw in an integrating factor [itex]e^{-\lambda x}[/itex] to make the integral converge, and then take the limit as [itex]\lambda\rightarrow0^+[/itex]. Try that and see what you get.
 
vela said:
The straightforward integral diverges, so what they probably did was throw in an integrating factor [itex]e^{-\lambda x}[/itex] to make the integral converge, and then take the limit as [itex]\lambda\rightarrow0^+[/itex]. Try that and see what you get.
That's a good trick. I'll have to remember that one.

Cheers.
 

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