What is the graph of y = log base 1 x?

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The logarithm to the base 1 is undefined because it leads to division by zero in its mathematical expression. Consequently, the graph of y = log1(x) is not a function but rather a vertical line at x = 1, indicating that it does not produce valid outputs for any other x values. The exponential form 1^y = x confirms that 1 raised to any power will always yield 1, reinforcing the idea that the only point on the graph is at (1, 1). The discussion highlights that while y = 1 is a valid function with a horizontal line graph, y = log1(x) does not represent a function at all. Overall, the concept of a graph for y = log1(x) is fundamentally flawed due to its undefined nature.
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I know that logarithms to the base 1 is undefined, due to the reason that:

\log_1{x} = \frac{\log_a{x}}{\log_a{1}}

And this leads to divison by zero, which is undefined.

There was a question in one of my textbooks that asked describe the graph that results if y = \log_1{x}. Is such a graph even possible?

If I switch this logarithm to exponential form I would get:

1^y = x

Now, is it possible that the graph could be y = 1 and x = 1? Since 1^y = x^1, y = 1 and x = 1.

Or is it the point of intersection of these two lines? If not, what is it?

Thanks.
 
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Well, not "the" graph. You have two "functions" there and so two graphs. Yes, if y= log1(x) then x= 1y= 1 for all x. The reason I put "functions" in quotes above is that this is not actually a function: strictly speaking, log1(x) is not a function. But it is a relation and its graph is the vertical straight line x= 1.

y= 1x= 1 is a function: its graph is the horizontal straight line y= 1.
 
Well not even going into division by zero when considering a change of base, you should recognize that 1 raised to a power won't get you x, a variable.

1 raised to any power, whether fractional, negative, or worse, is just 1. So the graph will look like x = 1.
 
Wouldn't the expression y=log11 (or y=log1(x);x=1 for all x) be undifned too as logn1 is always zero; So y=log11 has both zero and one as an answer?
 
Good morning I have been refreshing my memory about Leibniz differentiation of integrals and found some useful videos from digital-university.org on YouTube. Although the audio quality is poor and the speaker proceeds a bit slowly, the explanations and processes are clear. However, it seems that one video in the Leibniz rule series is missing. While the videos are still present on YouTube, the referring website no longer exists but is preserved on the internet archive...

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