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The Lorentz factor is important in many calculations for special relativity. If we consider [math]m = f(v) = \frac{m_0}{\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}}[/math] what is the inverse of $f$?
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The inverse function of the Lorentz factor, defined as \(f(v) = \frac{m_0}{\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}}\), is derived to be \(f^{-1}(m) = c\sqrt{1 - \frac{m_0^2}{m^2}}\). This function maps the mass \(m\) back to the velocity \(v\) in the context of special relativity. The discussion confirms that \(f\) is a bijection, ensuring the existence of an inverse, and validates the correctness of the inverse through functional composition.
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