gn0m0n
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Hi, I am wondering what justifies the substitution p_x -> (h/i)d/dx ? I know it is very common but I have not seen a reason for it anywhere. Why does it make physical sense?
The discussion revolves around the justification for the substitution of momentum operator \( p_x \) with the expression \( (h/i)d/dx \) in the context of quantum mechanics. Participants explore the physical and mathematical reasoning behind this common practice, touching on its implications for wave functions and momentum conservation.
Participants present various viewpoints on the justification for the substitution, with some focusing on physical interpretations and others emphasizing mathematical foundations. No consensus is reached on a singular justification.
The discussion highlights different interpretations and applications of the substitution, indicating potential limitations in understanding its broader implications or assumptions underlying the mathematical framework.