What is the limit of the sine function as x approaches 1?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the limit of the expression sin(x-1) / (x-1) as x approaches 1. Participants explore various methods to evaluate this limit, including algebraic manipulation and geometric interpretations, without reaching a consensus on the best approach.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests substituting x-1 with y to transform the limit into lim(y→0) sin(y)/y, claiming it is known to equal 1.
  • Another participant provides a similar substitution and reiterates that lim(y→0) sin(y)/y equals 1, also mentioning L'Hôpital's rule as a verification method.
  • A different participant presents an alternative reasoning using the asymptotic expansion of sin(t) to argue that the limit approaches 1 as t approaches 0.
  • One participant challenges the use of L'Hôpital's rule, stating that it requires finding the derivative of sin(x), which leads back to the original limit, suggesting a circular reasoning issue.
  • This participant proposes using a geometric interpretation involving the unit circle to establish the limit, providing inequalities that bound sin(x)/x and conclude that it approaches 1 as x approaches 0.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the methods to evaluate the limit, with some supporting the use of L'Hôpital's rule while others contest its applicability. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the preferred approach to finding the limit.

Contextual Notes

Some participants highlight the need for careful consideration of the assumptions involved in applying L'Hôpital's rule and the geometric interpretation, indicating that the discussion may depend on the definitions and contexts used.

Yankel
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Hello all,

I am looking for the limit of:

sin(x-1) / (x-1)

where x approaches 1. How do I do that ? Thanks !
 
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Yankel said:
Hello all,

I am looking for the limit of:

sin(x-1) / (x-1)

where x approaches 1. How do I do that ? Thanks !

We set $x-1=y$.
When $x \to 1$, $y \to 0$.

So, we have the limit:

$$\lim_{y \to 0} \frac{\sin y}{y}$$

and it is known that it is equal to $1$.

You can easily verify it, using L'Hôpital's rule..
 
Another way, $$\lim_{t\to 0}\frac{\sin t}{t}=\lim_{t\to 0}\frac{t+o(t)}{t}=\lim_{t\to 0}\left(1+\frac{o(t)}{t}\right)=1+0=1$$ $$\underbrace{\Rightarrow}_{t=x-1} \lim_{x\to 1}\frac{\sin (x-1)}{x-1}=1$$
 
evinda said:
We set $x-1=y$.
When $x \to 1$, $y \to 0$.

So, we have the limit:

$$\lim_{y \to 0} \frac{\sin y}{y}$$

and it is known that it is equal to $1$.

You can easily verify it, using L'Hôpital's rule...

No you most certainly can not! To use L'Hospital's Rule, you must be able to find the derivative of sin(x), so let's try it...

$\displaystyle \begin{align*} \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x} \, \left[ \sin{(x)} \right] &= \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{\sin{ \left( x + h \right) } - \sin{(x)}}{h} \\ &= \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{\sin{(x)}\cos{(h)} + \cos{(x)}\sin{(h)} - \sin{(x)}}{h} \\ &= \sin{(x)}\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{\cos{(h)} - 1}{h} + \cos{(x)} \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{\sin{(h)}}{h} \end{align*}$

So to find the derivative of sin(x), we need to evaluate the very limit we are trying to find!

To find this limit, you instead have to use the geometric definition of the trigonometric functions on the unit circle.

View attachment 3663

Notice that the area of the sector is a little more than the area of the smaller triangle and a little less than the area of the bigger triangle, so when the angle x is measured in radians we have

$\displaystyle \begin{align*} \frac{\sin{(x)}\cos{(x)}}{2} \leq \frac{x}{2} &\leq \frac{\tan{(x)}}{2} \\ \frac{\sin{(x)}\cos{(x)}}{2} \leq \frac{x}{2} &\leq \frac{\sin{(x)}}{2\cos{(x)}} \\ \sin{(x)} \cos{(x)} \leq x &\leq \frac{\sin{(x)}}{\cos{(x)}}\\ \cos{(x)} \leq \frac{x}{\sin{(x)}} &\leq \frac{1}{\cos{(x)}} \\ \frac{1}{\cos{(x)}} \geq \frac{\sin{(x)}}{x} &\geq \cos{(x)} \\ \cos{(x)} \leq \frac{\sin{(x)}}{x} &\leq \frac{1}{\cos{(x)}} \end{align*}$

and now if $\displaystyle \begin{align*} x \to 0 \end{align*}$ both $\displaystyle \begin{align*} \cos{(x)} \to 1 \end{align*}$ and $\displaystyle \begin{align*} \frac{1}{\cos{(x)}} \to 1 \end{align*}$, and since $\displaystyle \begin{align*} \frac{\sin{(x)}}{x} \end{align*}$ ends up sandwiched between two ones, it must also be that $\displaystyle \begin{align*} \frac{\sin{(x)}}{x} \to 1 \end{align*}$.

Note: Technically speaking we have only proved the right hand limit, but the left hand limit is pretty much identical, just with some negatives chucked in. I'll leave that for the readers :)
 

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