What is the limit of x^2sin(e/x) as x approaches 0?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the limit of the expression x^2sin(e/x) as x approaches 0, which involves concepts from calculus and limit laws.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the application of limit laws and question the validity of splitting limits when one does not exist. There is discussion about using a change of variables to analyze the limit and the potential application of the squeeze theorem.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants providing various approaches and clarifications. Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of the squeeze theorem and the implications of substituting variables, but no consensus has been reached on the best method to solve the limit.

Contextual Notes

One participant expresses uncertainty about the concepts due to being new to calculus and taking an accelerated course, indicating a potential need for foundational clarification.

lovely_aly
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Homework Statement


Find the lim x-->0 x^2sin(e/x).


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


Using the limit laws I can say that
lim x-->0 x^2sin(e/x) = lim x-->0 x^2 * lim x-->0 sin(e/x)
lim x-->0 x^2=0; but lim x-->0 sin(e/x) however, is undefined...right?

So, the limit doesn't exist?
 
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The theorem is... IF lim f and lim g exist, then lim(f+g) exists and equals limf+limg. Here, lim sin(e/x) doesn not exist, so you can't use this theorem.

But try to use the facts that |sin(y)|<=1 and the fact that lim |f(x)|=0 <==> lim f(x)=0.
 
lovely_aly said:
Using the limit laws I can say that
lim x-->0 x^2sin(e/x) = lim x-->0 x^2 * lim x-->0 sin(e/x)
lim x-->0 x^2=0; but lim x-->0 sin(e/x) however, is undefined...right?

No, you can't say that. You have to read the limit law carefully. It only allows you to split the limits up like that when both limits do exist.

Instead try the following change of variables. Let [itex]u=\frac{1}{x}[/itex]. Then [itex]x\rightarrow 0 \Rightarrow u\rightarrow\infty[/itex].
 
Tom Mattson said:
Instead try the following change of variables. Let [itex]u=\frac{1}{x}[/itex]. Then [itex]x\rightarrow 0 \Rightarrow u\rightarrow\infty[/itex].

Could you clarify this a bit more for me, please? Should I be subsituting [itex]u=\frac{1}{x}[/itex] for (e/x)? And essentially by taking the sin(infinity) the limit would be -1? Am I following this correctly?

Forgive me if I'm a little slow with this. I'm a newbie to calculus, this is the first term I've ever taken and it's an online accelerated course. So, while I enjoy math and usually get it pretty quickly, my extreme overload of information has got my brain sort of going in circles.

And, thank you! I really appreciate the help. =)
 
He means that you should consider
[tex]\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\frac{1}{u^2}sin(ue)[/tex]

You can then apply the squeeze theorem to this limit."And essentially by taking the sin(infinity) the limit would be -1?"
Not sure where you get this. sin(infinity) is not well-defined in any sense.
 
You might also use the fact that
[itex]\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{sin(x)}{x}= 1[/itex]
 
Halls: can't he use squeeze theorem directly without the substitution, or am I missing something?
 
Yes, you could. I was just suggesting another possibility.
 

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