What is the non-local interaction in HQET?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the non-local interactions in Heavy Quark Effective Theory (HQET), specifically examining the implications of a particular Lagrangian and the reasons behind its non-locality. The scope includes theoretical exploration and technical clarification of concepts within quantum field theory.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Technical explanation, Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents the Lagrangian of HQET and questions why it is considered non-local.
  • Another participant suggests that the non-locality arises from the choice of momentum "v", indicating a loss of Lorentz invariance due to selecting a specific point of view.
  • A different participant reiterates the Lagrangian and proposes that the non-locality is due to the operator \(\frac{1}{iD\cdot v + 2m_Q}\), which implies integration over all space, or can be expanded to show derivatives of all orders.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the reasons for non-locality, with no consensus reached on a single explanation. Multiple interpretations of the Lagrangian's non-local nature are presented.

Contextual Notes

The discussion does not resolve the underlying assumptions about the definitions of non-locality or the implications of the chosen momentum in the context of HQET.

Einj
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Hi everyone. I have been studying the Heavy Quark Effective Theory and at a certain point we have a Lagrangian like:
$$
\mathcal{L}=\bar h_v iD\cdot v h_v+\bar h_vi\gamma_\mu D^\mu_\perp\frac{1}{iD\cdot v+2m_Q}i\gamma_\nu D_\perp^\nu h_v.
$$
[itex]h_v[/itex] is the field representing the heavy quark, [itex]v[/itex] is the velocity of the heavy quark and [itex]D_\mu[/itex] is the usual covariant derivative.

I read that this Lagrangian is non-local but I can't understand why. Do you have any idea?
 
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Is it because you're choosing what the momentum "v" is? Therefor things are no longer technically lorentz invariant, as the theory only holds in the limit that v is "stationary". Basically you're choosing a specific POV to choose the problem.
 
Einj said:
$$
\mathcal{L}=\bar h_v iD\cdot v h_v+\bar h_vi\gamma_\mu D^\mu_\perp\frac{1}{iD\cdot v+2m_Q}i\gamma_\nu D_\perp^\nu h_v.
$$

I read that this Lagrangian is non-local but I can't understand why. Do you have any idea?
It's because of the operator [itex]\frac{1}{iD\cdot v+2m_Q}[/itex], which implies an integration over all x. Or you can expand it in a power series and get derivatives of all orders.
 
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Great, thanks!
 

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