What is the pressure at the tap due to Darcy losses?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the pressure at a tap due to Darcy losses in a hose supplying water. The problem involves parameters such as hose length, friction factor, water density, diameter, and velocity, and it requires an understanding of fluid dynamics principles, particularly energy conservation and pressure losses.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the relationship between pressure, velocity, and Darcy losses, questioning the validity of the original poster's calculations and the assumptions made regarding energy conservation.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing feedback on the original poster's approach and calculations. Some participants suggest checking dimensions and the factors used in the equations, while others question the justification for certain terms in the energy conservation context.

Contextual Notes

There is a focus on the distinction between pressure at the tap and pressure losses due to friction, with some participants noting the potential confusion in applying energy conservation principles in this scenario. The assumption of atmospheric pressure at the hose's exit is also mentioned.

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Homework Statement


There is a tap that supplies water to a L=21m hose. There are friction losses in the hose due to friction (Darcy losses).
f = 0.0138
ρ = 1000 kg/m3
diameter d= 0.025m
water velocity V=2.54m/s
What is the pressure at the tap?

Homework Equations


Darcy losses: h= 4fLV^2/d2g

The Attempt at a Solution


My solution says that the pressure energy in the tap will have to maintain a flow of 2.54m/s and overcome the Darcy losses.
Darcy pressure losses are h=4fLV^2/d2g, and since P=ρgh, we get P(darcy)=4fLgV^2/2d
As a result P(tap)=V^2/2g + 4fLgV^2/2d = 486Pa
But it doesn't seem correct, any idea?

Apparently, the correct solutions says P=ρgh(darcy)
 
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physea said:
But it doesn't seem correct
No, indeed. Just checking the dimensions might help ...

And: you sure about the factor 4 (always confusing: Darcy/Fanning) ?
(never mind - from the value of Re and f, I think you're right.
 
Last edited:
physea said:
=V^2/2g +
How do you justify that term?
 
haruspex said:
How do you justify that term?

Basically from energy conservation.
If no Darcy losses were available, it would be PV=1/2*m*U^2, which divided by m, makes P=rho*U^2/2, which since P=rho*g*h, it becomes h=U^2/2g
To this, I add the Darcy head loss.

Is this approach correct?
 
We are talking about friction losses in a pipe -- not your everyday example of a process where energy conservation can be used in the calculations.

A few more issues:
physea said:
Apparently, the correct solutions says P=ρgh(darcy)
At the tap :rolleyes: ?

It's not ##p = \rho g h ## but ##\Delta p =\rho g \Delta h## where in this case the friction loss is/can be converted to head loss ##\Delta h##. Confusing but possible.

They ask for the pressure at the tap. That is pressure at the exit + pressure loss due to friction (plus a possible hydrostatic head, but you may assume the pipe is horzontal.)
 
physea said:
h=U^2/2g
Yeah, that's what you get if you spout vertically. We're in a different scenario here !
 
physea said:
Basically from energy conservation.
And that term represents a change in KE? Is there a change in KE?
 
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haruspex said:
And that term represents a change in KE? Is there a change in KE?

No, volumetric water flow is stable.
I assume that the pressure at the end of the hose is zero... well atmospheric
 
physea said:
No, volumetric water flow is stable.
I assume that the pressure at the end of the hose is zero... well atmospheric
Then I see no reason for that term. The total energy has the same ½ρv2 at beginning and end, so the two cancel.
 

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