What is the Probability of Finding a Particle in an Infinite Square Well at x=L?

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the probability of finding a particle in the ground state of an infinite square well at the boundary, specifically at x=L, within a small interval Δx=0.002L. Participants are exploring the implications of the wavefunction and the behavior of the sine function at this boundary.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants attempt to calculate the probability using the wavefunction squared, questioning the validity of ignoring the sine term at x=L. Others suggest using first-order approximations or Taylor series expansions to address the zero value of the sine function at the boundary.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants offering various approaches to resolve the issue of the probability being zero at the boundary. There are suggestions to evaluate the wavefunction at different points within the interval and to consider Taylor series for a more accurate estimate. Multiple interpretations of the problem are being explored without a clear consensus.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the constraints of the problem, including the specific conditions of the infinite square well and the implications of boundary behavior on the probability calculation. There is an emphasis on the need for careful approximation methods due to the nature of the sine function at the boundary.

UrbanXrisis
Messages
1,192
Reaction score
1
A particle is in ground state of an infinite square well. Find the probabilirt of finding the particle in the interval [tex]\Delta x = 0.002L[/tex] at x=L. (since delta x is small, do not integrate)

here's what I have:

[tex]\Psi*\Psi = P(x) = \frac{2}{L} sin^2 \left(\frac{ \pi x}{L} \right) \Delta x[/tex]

[tex]P = \frac{2}{L} sin^2 \left(\frac{ \pi L}{L} \right) 0.002L[/tex]
[tex]P = 2sin^2 \left(\pi \right) 0.002[/tex]
[tex]P=0.004[/tex]

is this the correct method?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
you can't just ignore the sin(Pi) term because it is 0. You need to use a first order approximation of sin(Pi+delta) and square the first order approximation in order to get the result you want.

~Lyuokdea
 
what is a first order approximation? and why would I use sin(Pi+delta) ?
 
UrbanXrisis said:
A particle is in ground state of an infinite square well. Find the probabilirt of finding the particle in the interval [tex]\Delta x = 0.002L[/tex] at x=L. (since delta x is small, do not integrate)

here's what I have:

[tex]\Psi*\Psi = P(x) = \frac{2}{L} sin^2 \left(\frac{ \pi x}{L} \right) \Delta x[/tex]

[tex]P = \frac{2}{L} sin^2 \left(\frac{ \pi L}{L} \right) 0.002L[/tex]
[tex]P = 2sin^2 \left(\pi \right) 0.002[/tex]
[tex]P=0.004[/tex]

is this the correct method?
You made a trig mistake with [tex]sin(\pi)[/tex].
It should = zero.
I disagree with the hint.
You can expand [tex]sin^2(\pi-z)[/tex] for small z, and then integrate from L-\delta x to L. You could also integrate without the expansion, and just be careful about the numbers.
 
sorry, i used bad terminology in the hint, use Meir Archuz's hint, try to do a taylor series expansion for sin(x) around x=0 and see how that applies to your problem.

~Lyuokdea
 
wouldnt the possibility be just = 0? I don't think this question was designed for the use of the taylor series.
 
The probability is not zero. You only get zero because you've made too rough of an approximation to the integral. To get a better estimate of the propability, try evaluating the wavefunction somewhere else in the interval, say at the midpoint.
 
delta x=L/2
[tex]P = \frac{2}{L} sin^2 \left(\frac{ \pi }{2} \right) 0.002L[/tex]
P=0.004?
 
Hi UrbanXrisis,

You have misunderstood me, but let me ask you, do you think your answer makes sense? Should the probability depend on the value of the wavefunction in the middle of the box? To clarify, what I mean was that you should perhaps look at the midpoint of the interval [tex][ L - .002 L, L][/tex].
 
  • #10
i'm not sure. there is an example in my text that is exacly the same problem. "what would be the probability of finding an electron while in ground state in a very narrow region delta x = 0.01L wide centered at x=5L/8"

The way that the book goes about solving this question was using:
[tex]P = \frac{2}{L} sin^2 \left(\frac{ \pi (5L/8)}{L} \right) 0.01L=0.017[/tex]

so I am following their procedure
 
  • #11
why would the probability not be zero at x=L ??
it should be zero AT the boundary but little to the left say [itex]L-\Delta x[/itex] it will be almost zero but very small
 
  • #12
UrbanXrisis said:
i'm not sure. there is an example in my text that is exacly the same problem. "what would be the probability of finding an electron while in ground state in a very narrow region delta x = 0.01L wide centered at x=5L/8"

The way that the book goes about solving this question was using:
[tex]P = \frac{2}{L} sin^2 \left(\frac{ \pi (5L/8)}{L} \right) 0.01L=0.017[/tex]

so I am following their procedure

but is this what I should follow when doing my problem?
 
  • #13
no, because then you will get an answer that is zero.

For the spread centered around a point like x=5L/8, the above approximation is ok, because you can assume that (5+.01)L/8 is approximately similar to 5L/8.

However, you cannot do this for the point x=L because sin(Pi*x/L) is exactly 0 at that point. Thus sin(Pi*(1-.01)*L/L) is not approximately the same as sin(Pi).

Have you done work with Taylor Series? How does sin(x) change when x is close to zero? Find the first non-zero term in the taylor expansion, and use that in order to find a non-zero answer. For most classes, the first non-zero term is a good enough answer.

~Lyuokdea
 
  • #14
but according to qpt:

qtp said:
why would the probability not be zero at x=L ??
it should be zero AT the boundary but little to the left say [itex]L-\Delta x[/itex] it will be almost zero but very small
 
  • #15
that's exactly right, but your answer gives you a number that is exactly zero, because the sin (Pi) is 0. To find the small but non-zero answer, you need to expand sin(Pi) into it's taylor series.

Physics monkey gave another good suggestion which gives you a non-zero answer without depending on Taylor series, simply find the midpoint of the range [L-.002, L] and then use that value, as shown in the example which you quoted from the book, to find a first order approximation of the answer.

~Lyuokdea
 
  • #16
Just do the simple integral of sin^2 from .998L to L.
If you can't get enough accuracy, then expand either before or after integrating.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
16
Views
3K
  • · Replies 39 ·
2
Replies
39
Views
15K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
4K