What Steps Are Needed to Solve This Integral Problem?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around solving the integral \(\int_0^{\infty}\frac{\ln(1+\alpha\,x)}{(1+x)^2}\,dx\). Participants explore various methods for evaluating the integral, including integration by parts and substitutions, while questioning the validity of certain approaches and results.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents an integration by parts approach, leading to a term that evaluates to zero and a second term that raises questions about finiteness.
  • Another participant suggests avoiding partial fractions and hints at finding a suitable substitution instead.
  • A participant expresses difficulty in finding a relevant formula in integral tables and questions the limit evaluation of a logarithmic expression as \(x\) approaches infinity.
  • Further clarification is sought on the mathematical justification for the limit evaluation, with a suggestion of using Taylor series expansion.
  • Participants discuss the approximation of the logarithmic expression under certain conditions, concluding that \(\ln(1) = 0\) simplifies the evaluation process.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the best method to solve the integral, with multiple competing approaches and unresolved questions about the validity of certain steps.

Contextual Notes

There are limitations in the discussion regarding the assumptions made in the evaluation of integrals and the dependence on specific mathematical techniques that may not yield finite results.

EngWiPy
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Hi,

I am trying to solve this integral:

\int_0^{\infty}\frac{\ln(1+\alpha\,x)}{(1+x)^2}\,dx

Using integration by parts this can be written as:

-\frac{1}{1+x}\ln(1+\alpha\,x)\Big|_0^{\infty}\Big. + \alpha\int_0^{\infty}\frac{1}{(1+x)(1+\alpha\,x)}\,dx

The first term evaluates to zero. The second term can be evaluated using partial fractions as:

\int_0^{\infty}\frac{A}{1+x}\,dx+\int_0^{\infty}\frac{\alpha B}{1+\alpha x}\,dx

But these integrals aren't finite, are they? A paper I was reading evaluted the original integral to

\frac{\alpha}{\alpha-1}\ln(\alpha)

and I wonder how did the authors reached this result? Did I do something wrong?

Thanks in advance
 
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Thanks. I searched for a similar formula in the Table of Integrals, Series, and Products, but didn't find one! Applying the formula implies that

\lim_{x\to\infty}\,\,\ln\left(\frac{1+x}{\alpha^{-1}+x}\right) = 0

Why? How to mathematically show this is the case? Do we need to use the Taylor series expansion?
 
EngWiPy said:
Why? How to mathematically show this is the case? Do we need to use the Taylor series expansion?

When ##x >>(1, ~\alpha^{-1})##, ##\frac{1+x}{~\alpha^{-1}+x}\approx\frac{x}{x}=1##. What is ##\ln(1)##?
 
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kuruman said:
When ##x >>(1, ~\alpha^{-1})##, ##\frac{1+x}{~\alpha^{-1}+x}\approx\frac{x}{x}=1##. What is ##\ln(1)##?

Right. ##\ln(1) = 0##. Approximations make things easy. Thanks a lot
 

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