What's Flawed in This 0=1 Proof Using Basic Calculus?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around a purported proof that claims to show 0 = 1 using basic calculus, specifically through the integration of the function 1/x. Participants analyze the steps of the proof and identify flaws in the reasoning, focusing on the application of integration by parts and the treatment of constants of integration.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents a proof claiming to show that 0 = 1 through integration by parts, inviting others to identify the error.
  • Another participant challenges the initial setup of the proof, questioning the validity of the definitions used for u and dv.
  • A subsequent reply clarifies the intended use of integration by parts and corrects the notation in the proof.
  • Participants point out that the step leading to 0 = 1 is invalid, emphasizing that the integration by parts formula requires careful handling of constants.
  • It is noted that the integral of 1/x represents a family of functions differing by a constant, which is crucial to understanding the error in the proof.
  • Several participants agree that the omission of the constant of integration leads to the flawed conclusion.
  • One participant reiterates the importance of including constants when dealing with indefinite integrals, suggesting that this resolves the error in the proof.
  • Another participant acknowledges the context of the problem as involving indefinite integrals, indicating a focus on that aspect of the discussion.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that the proof is flawed due to the omission of constants of integration and misapplication of integration by parts. However, there is some disagreement regarding the interpretation of the proof's setup and the implications of using indefinite integrals.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the importance of constants in integration and the nuances of antiderivatives, which are not resolved in the initial proof. The treatment of indefinite integrals and the assumptions made in the proof are also points of contention.

protonchain
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Another one of those 0 = 1 proofs.

If you dislike them, please navigate away to cats doing things with captions. Otherwise stay tuned.

Tell me what's wrong (obviously I know what's wrong but I just want to put it out there for people to mull over).

Note, you need to know basic calculus.

[tex] <br /> \int \frac{1}{x} dx = \int \frac{1}{x} dx[/tex]

[tex] u = \frac{1}{x}[/tex]

[tex] dv = dx[/tex]

[tex] du = \frac{-1}{x^2} dx[/tex]

[tex] v = x[/tex]

[tex] \int \frac{1}{x} dx = u * v - \int v du[/tex]

[tex] \int \frac{1}{x} dx = \frac{1}{x} * x - \int x * \frac{-1}{x^2} dx[/tex]

[tex] \int \frac{1}{x} dx = 1 - \int \frac{-1}{x} dx[/tex]

[tex] \int \frac{1}{x} dx = 1 + \int \frac{1}{x} dx[/tex]

[tex] 0 = 1[/tex]
 
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Right off the bat, [tex]u = \frac{{dv}}{x} = dx[/tex] makes no sense. The second line makes no sense either... am i completely missing something?
 
Sorry those are supposed to be separate. I will edit that in.

This is what it should look like

[tex] u = \frac{1}{x}[/tex]

[tex] dv = dx[/tex]

I have also added an extra step just to show that I am going to be using integration by parts to do the "proof"
 
[tex]\int \frac{1}{x} dx = 1 - \int \frac{-1}{x} dx[/tex] isn't valid. Integration by part goes like:

[tex]\int\limits_a^b {udv} = [uv]_a^b - \int\limits_a^b {vdu}[/tex]

The term you think is 1 is actually 0.
 
We are dealing with antiderivatives. So, given F(x) and G(x) that are antiderivatives of 1/x, it is true that F(x) = G(x) + C, for some constant C. For example, the second to last line you have can be written as

ln(x) + C = 1 + ln(x) + D for some constants C, and D. We do not then conclude that 0 = 1.

The integral of 1/x dx is a FAMILY of functions that all differ by a constant.
 
I only got to the end of the second sentence
 
Russell has the right answer. To be strictly correct, the rule for integration by parts is better written as

[tex]\int u dv = u*v - \int v du + C[/tex]

We drop the arbitrary constant because it is implied by the very use of indefinite integrals, or antiderivatives. The inverse of the derivative is not unique.
 
Russell and D_H are correct, the constant term is missing. Gj guys :)
 
protonchain said:
Russell and D_H are correct, the constant term is missing. Gj guys :)

and Pengwuino too. You either put in constants of integration, or use definite integrals. Either way resolves the error.
 
  • #10
Right, but since I defined the problem in the start as indefinite integrals, I was looking for the answer that was related to indefinite integrals. Anyways. It's just a simple problem
 

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