in peskin-schroeder and http://www.hep.phy.cam.ac.uk/batley/particles/handout_04.pdf" [Broken] the amplitude for [tex] e^-e^+\rightarrow \mu^- \mu^+ [/tex] is written using feynman rules as follows(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[tex] -iM=[\bar{v}(p_2)(-ie\gamma^\mu )u(p_1)] \frac{-ig_{\mu\nu}}{q^2}[\bar{u}(k_1)(-ie\gamma^\nu )v(k_2)] [/tex]

but what about the delta function integeration? is it already done here?

thanks in advanced!

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# When can we ignore the delta function in th Feynman rules?

Loading...

Similar Threads for ignore delta function | Date |
---|---|

I Show that the integral of the Dirac delta function is equal to 1 | Feb 10, 2018 |

I QM Ignorance is Bliss | Dec 23, 2016 |

Is Quantum Mechanics an artifact of our ignorance? | Aug 12, 2015 |

Dirac Relativistic Wave Equation | Aug 10, 2015 |

How do we know uncertainty principal isnt ignorance? | Dec 23, 2014 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**