Where does the 2/π constant come from in this Fourier cosine series?

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icystrike
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Homework Statement


f(t)=1-t ; 0≤t≤\pi

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



[tex] a_{0}=\frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{2}\left( 1-t\right) dt=0[/tex]
[tex] a_{n}=\int_{0}^{2}\left(1-t\right ) cos(\frac{n\pi\left t \right}{2}) dt = \frac{4}{(n\pi)^2}(1-(-1)^n)[/tex]
Ans that is given to me is:
[tex]\frac{2}{\pi} + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{4}{(n\pi)^2}(1-(-1)^n) cos(\frac{n\pi\left t \right}{2})[/tex]

I'm wondering where the [tex]\frac{2}{\pi}[/tex] from...
 
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icystrike said:

Homework Statement


f(t)=1-t ; 0≤t≤\pi

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



[tex] a_{0}=\frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{2}\left( 1-t\right) dt=0[/tex]
[tex] a_{n}=\int_{0}^{2}\left(1-t\right ) cos(\frac{n\pi\left t \right}{2}) dt = \frac{4}{(n\pi)^2}(1-(-1)^n)[/tex]
Ans that is given to me is:
[tex]\frac{2}{\pi} + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{4}{(n\pi)^2}(1-(-1)^n) cos(\frac{n\pi\left t \right}{2})[/tex]

I'm wondering where the [tex]\frac{2}{\pi}[/tex] from...

I'm wondering where your upper limit of 2 in your integrals came from. I'm wondering if you calculated a0 correctly. Did you use the half range formulas for the coefficients?
 
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A "bump" after 39 minutes and then a second after another 1 hour 10 minutes? How close to banning does that get you?
 
Hi LCKurtz!

I have applied the formula for coeff:

[tex]a_{0}=\frac{1}{L}\int_{0}^{L}f\left( x\right) dx[/tex]

[tex]a_{n}=\frac{2}{L}\int_{0}^{L}f\left( x\right) \cos \left( \frac{n\pi x}{L}\right) dx[/tex]

Given [tex]x\in \left[ 0,L\right][/tex]Fourier Sine series:

[tex]b_{n}=\int_{0}^{2}\left( 1-t\right) \sin \left( \frac{n\pi t}{2}\right) dt[/tex]

[tex]=\frac{2}{n\pi }\left( 1+\left( -1\right) ^{n}\right)[/tex]Fourier Sine Series:

[tex]\sum_{n=1}^{\infty }\frac{2}{n\pi }\left( 1+\left( -1\right) ^{n}\right)<br /> \sin \left( \frac{n\pi t}{2}\right) $[/tex]
 
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