Not to repeat what is already said, my thoughts are more or less the 4 points mentioned here: http://physics.stackexchange.com/qu...ement-an-illusion-based-on-a-wrong-assumption The upvoted answer to what gpgemini's said is that this assumption is essentially what local hidden variables theory propose, and by that its ruled out because experiments demonstrate Bell's inequality violation. But to my understanding, a predetermined state is a different thing than local hidden variable theory: Within a local hidden variable theory, entangled particles somehow supposed to have infinite (?) embedded information with them about what will the outcome be in any possible measurement, such as the outcome will emulate what is interpreted as puzzling FTL instantaneous action in other QM interpretations. Referring to this, Bell showed that there are limits to the probability distribution of all possible outcomes if the information the entangled particles carry, is predetermined the moment the entangled pair is created and not changed until measurement. Experiments repeatedly violate local hidden variables probability limits, ruling them out (assuming no loopholes) But with a predetermined entanglement, particles do not carry ANY information, just exists a definite "opposing" state between them (such as a specific polarization angle difference or opposing spin direction in x axis). Bells inequality clearly does not apply here, because you cannot calculate probability distribution limits of NO information. And to my understanding (wrong?) any entanglement experiment using polarization direction of photons, because of Malus law CAN violate the inequality, without ruling out, this predetermined state hypothesis. ... I am for sure missing something fundamental, but what?