Which Lagrangian is correct for SR?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the validity of different Lagrangians for special relativity (SR) and their implications for deriving equations of motion. Participants explore various forms of the Lagrangian, their properties, and the conditions under which they can be applied, focusing on the context of free particles and the role of proper time.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants propose the Lagrangian \(\mathcal{L}=-\frac{m}{2} u^\alpha u_\alpha\) as a candidate for SR, noting it leads to the correct equations of motion when using the Euler-Lagrange equation.
  • Others suggest the Lagrangian \(\mathcal{L}=-m \sqrt{u^\alpha u_\alpha}\) is also valid, as it similarly yields the correct equations of motion.
  • A participant questions the first Lagrangian's ability to provide the geodesic equation and points out its lack of reparametrization invariance.
  • It is noted that the choice of Lagrangian is not unique; multiple forms can be used depending on the context, particularly when considering multiple particles.
  • Concerns are raised regarding the implications of inserting constraints into the Lagrangian, specifically the condition that the 4-velocity squared equals 1, and how this affects the derived actions.
  • Some participants argue that constraints should only be applied after deriving equations of motion, while others provide examples suggesting immediate substitution is permissible.
  • References to literature, such as Landau and Lifgarbagez, are made to support various claims about the Lagrangian forms and their derivations.
  • A quote from Ohanian is discussed, emphasizing that the condition \((dx^\mu/d\tau)(dx_\mu/d\tau) = 1\) should not be inserted into the Lagrangian a priori, but rather is a consequence of the equations of motion.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the appropriateness of various Lagrangian forms and the handling of constraints. There is no consensus on which Lagrangian is definitively correct, and the discussion remains unresolved regarding the implications of inserting constraints into the Lagrangian.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include the dependence on the definitions of proper time and the nature of constraints in the variational principle. The discussion highlights the complexities involved in applying different Lagrangian forms and the conditions under which they are valid.

geoduck
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Is: \mathcal L=-\frac{m}{2} u^\alpha u_\alpha

a correct Lagrangian for SR (assuming the parameter is proper time rather than world time)?

It leads to the correct EOM when plugged into the Euler-Lagrange equation, m\frac{du^\alpha}{ds}=0

Or is this the correct Lagrangian:

\mathcal L=-m \sqrt{u^\alpha u_\alpha}

which also leads to the correct EOM, m\frac{du^\alpha}{ds}=0?
 
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For a free particle the lagrangian is ##\mathcal{L} = -mc^{2}\sqrt{1 - \frac{v^{2}}{c^{2}}}## (Landau and Lifgarbagez - Classical Theory of Fields, page 26).
 
I am not sure if the first one can give the geodesic equation. It also fails to have reparametrization invariance.
 
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The Lagrangian is not unique. Any of these three may be used, depending on what you have in mind. The first two have the virtue of being relativistically invariant, and they're valid if you're writing the action in terms of the particle's proper time: I = ∫L dτ.

Their disadvantage comes if you have more than one particle, and hence more than one proper time. In that case it's necessary to use the third form with the action I = ∫L dt.
 
Bill_K said:
The Lagrangian is not unique. Any of these three may be used, depending on what you have in mind. The first two have the virtue of being relativistically invariant, and they're valid if you're writing the action in terms of the particle's proper time: I = ∫L dτ.

Their disadvantage comes if you have more than one particle, and hence more than one proper time. In that case it's necessary to use the third form with the action I = ∫L dt.

I have a question concerning the constraint that the 4-velocity squared is 1. Naively, the first Lagrangian gives -m/2 if you enter the constraint in, while the second Lagrangian gives -m. So it seems the second Lagrangian gives the correct action, since if the Lagrangian is -m, then the action is:

∫(-m) ds=-m∫ds

The first Lagrangian is smaller by 1/2, which seems like it should matter when adding an interaction such as the E&M one, but it doesn't!

Also the equation of motion for the second Lagrangian I think is derived like this:

\frac{d}{ds} \frac{\delta (-m\sqrt{u^\alpha u_\alpha})}{\delta u^\beta}=F
\frac{d}{ds}\left(-m\frac{u_\beta}{\sqrt{u^\alpha u_\alpha}}\right)=F

Now if you set the 4-velocity squared equal to 1 in the denominator, you recover the EOM. So is the rule this: you can only insert a constraint after you take derivatives with respect to the coordinate fields to get the Euler-Lagrange equation?

WannabeNewton said:
For a free particle the lagrangian is ##\mathcal{L} = -mc^{2}\sqrt{1 - \frac{v^{2}}{c^{2}}}## (Landau and Lifgarbagez - Classical Theory of Fields, page 26).

That Lagrangian makes more sense to me, but Landau and Lifgarbagez on page 64 of the same book derive it with 2nd Lagrangian (set A=0 in his example). The problem is he varied the action rather than using the Euler-Lagrange equations, and I got lost on when he was allowed to use the constraint that the 4-velocity squared equals 1.
 
Naively, the first Lagrangian gives -m/2 if you enter the constraint in, while the second Lagrangian gives -m. So it seems the second Lagrangian gives the correct action, since if the Lagrangian is -m, then the action is: ∫(-m) ds=-m∫ds The first Lagrangian is smaller by 1/2, which seems like it should matter when adding an interaction such as the E&M one, but it doesn't!
The value of the Lagrangian doesn't have any significance. The Lagrangian is a functional form to be varied, that's all it is.

So is the rule this: you can only insert a constraint after you take derivatives with respect to the coordinate fields to get the Euler-Lagrange equation?
That's correct. You only get to use the constraint after the equations of motion have been derived.

In addition to giving the Lagrangian, you also have to specify what's being varied. In the first case, uμ is not an independent variable, it's understood to be a shorthand for dxμ/dτ, and it's really xμ(τ) that's being varied.
 
Bill_K said:
The value of the Lagrangian doesn't have any significance. The Lagrangian is a functional form to be varied, that's all it is.


That's correct. You only get to use the constraint after the equations of motion have been derived.

I thought for constraints, you can plug in the constraint immediately into the Lagrangian. As an example take the Lagrangian of a free particle in polar coordinates in 2 dimensions.

For the constraint r=1, you can just set r=1 into the Lagrangian! Then the kinetic term involving the time derivative of the radial field is zero (since dr/dt=0), and the kinetic term for the angular field has a pure number multiplying it, r2(dθ/dt)2 becomes (dθ/dt)2.
 
Quote from relativity book by Ohanian:
Note that the condition (dxμ/dτ)(dxμ/dτ) = 1 must not be inserted into [the Lagrangian]. This condition is only valid along the actual worldline of the particle where the parameter τ coincides with the proper time. The other nearby worldlines that must be considered in the variational principle have their own proper time distinct from τ and hence along them (dxμ/dτ)(dxμ/dτ) ≠ 1.
I believe what he's saying is that the condition (dxμ/dτ)(dxμ/dτ) = 1 is not an a priori constraint, rather it's a dynamical consequence derived from the equations of motion after you have them.

Similarly, in your 2-dimensional particle example, from the equations of motion one can derive the conservation of angular momentum, L = mr(dθ/dt)2, but you can't just go back and make this replacement in the Lagrangian.
 
Bill_K said:
Quote from relativity book by Ohanian:

I believe what he's saying is that the condition (dxμ/dτ)(dxμ/dτ) = 1 is not an a priori constraint, rather it's a dynamical consequence derived from the equations of motion after you have them.

Similarly, in your 2-dimensional particle example, from the equations of motion one can derive the conservation of angular momentum, L = mr(dθ/dt)2, but you can't just go back and make this replacement in the Lagrangian.

Thanks. That makes sense.

If you're interested, here is something interesting I found:

http://arxiv.org/pdf/hep-th/0009128v2.pdf

Only look at equations 5 and 6. If you solve the E-L equations for η (η has no dynamics so it's a constraint field), and plug this η back into equation 5, you recover √(uμuμ)! So what the author seems to be claiming is that you can get rid of the square root, but you have to add the constraint field.

But it seems you can directly use (1/2)[uμuμ) without an η field, so maybe the author has it wrong?
 

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