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Why (1+1/n)^n goes to e as n goes to infinite?

  1. Dec 14, 2011 #1
    I uploaded a picture of my question. I am just wondering how to justify how (1 + 1/n)^n goes to e as n goes to ∞? How do you show this?

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  3. Dec 14, 2011 #2


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    You can if you take the log and then use l'Hopital's rule. On the other hand it might just be a definition of 'e'.
  4. Dec 14, 2011 #3
    You could alose plug in some very large values of n and see that it indeed approaches e (I was bored and did this myself a few days ago). This is the definition of e.
  5. Dec 15, 2011 #4


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  6. Dec 15, 2011 #5


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    How, exactly are you defining "e"? In many texts, e is defined by that limit.
  7. Dec 15, 2011 #6


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    It's more instructive to show that the sequence converges. Its limit is denoted by 'e' and is one of the most important real numbers in mathematics. Another interesting proof would be to show that the number, namely the limit, is irrational. Then transcendental.
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