Why 2p=ln[(1-cost)/(1+cost)] => t=(1/coshp)^2

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a mathematical expression involving hyperbolic functions and logarithms, specifically the relationship between the equation \(2p=\ln\left(\frac{1-\cos t}{1+\cos t}\right)\) and \(t=\left(\frac{1}{\cosh p}\right)^2\). Participants are exploring the implications of this relationship.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are questioning the validity of the original expression and its implications. There is a suggestion that the expression may have been written incorrectly, with one participant proposing an alternative form involving \(\sin^{2}t\).

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants seeking clarification on the original question and expressing doubts about the correctness of the equations presented. Some guidance has been offered regarding the need for clearer questioning and demonstration of effort.

Contextual Notes

There appears to be confusion regarding the formulation of the equations, and participants are encouraged to specify their questions more clearly. The nature of the problem suggests a need for deeper exploration of the mathematical relationships involved.

astronomia84
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why
2p=ln[(1-cost)/(1+cost)] => t=(1/coshp)^2

?
?
 
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why not?
 
i think you wrote it wrong. it should be
[tex]\sin^{2}t = \left(\frac{1}{\cosh p}\right)^2[/tex]
 
astronomia84 said:
why
2p=ln[(1-cost)/(1+cost)] => t=(1/coshp)^2

?
?

What is the actual question you are asking here? Are you asking why, or if, the left implies the right. Have you done anything to attempt to show this? I doubt anyone will help unless you firstly specify your question, and secondly show some effort!
 

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