- #1
Karagoz
- 52
- 5
Hi.
If we have 1 million entangled photons separated from their "entangled partner". We send all those photons (without their "entangled partners") through a polarizer. Each photon has has 50% chance of passing through the polarizer.
So 50% of the photons will pass through the polarizer and have a spin parallell with the axis of the polarizer, and 50% of the photons won't pass through the polarizer and become absorbed.
But wouldn't the probability of a photon passing through a polarizer be P = cos2(Φ)?
(Where Φ is the difference between spin axis of the photon and axis of the polarizer).
Why the probability is always 50%?
If we have 1 million entangled photons separated from their "entangled partner". We send all those photons (without their "entangled partners") through a polarizer. Each photon has has 50% chance of passing through the polarizer.
So 50% of the photons will pass through the polarizer and have a spin parallell with the axis of the polarizer, and 50% of the photons won't pass through the polarizer and become absorbed.
But wouldn't the probability of a photon passing through a polarizer be P = cos2(Φ)?
(Where Φ is the difference between spin axis of the photon and axis of the polarizer).
Why the probability is always 50%?
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