Why Are Higher-Order Derivatives Needed for Continuity in Sobolev Spaces?

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Higher-order derivatives are essential for continuity in Sobolev spaces because, in dimensions greater than one, functions can exhibit behaviors that require additional smoothness to ensure continuity. Specifically, while in one dimension, having a function and its first derivative integrable suffices for continuity, this is not the case in higher dimensions where more complex interactions can occur. A counterexample of a function in W^{1}_{1} that is not continuous in 2D is sought to illustrate this point. Additionally, the discussion touches on the relationship between Sobolev spaces and continuous differentiability, noting that W^{1}_{1} encompasses a broader class than merely continuously differentiable functions. Overall, understanding these nuances is crucial for grasping the implications of Sobolev embeddings and their requirements for continuity.
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Hello there,

I have a question about Sobolev's first theorem.

Essentially it is said that for p = 1 the space [tax] W^{l}_{p} [\tex] belongs to the space of continuous if l ≥ n.
So, in 1D I just need the finction and its first derivative to be integrable, which makes perfect sense.
I can not get why though for n > 1 I need information on derivatives of higher order to conclude the finction is continuous. In other words, can anyone show me a counterexample of a function W^{1}_{1} [\tex] not continuous over a 2D domain?<br /> <br /> The second curiosity concerns the following statement I have found on the web, <a href="http://terrytao.wordpress.com/2009/04/30/245c-notes-4-sobolev-spaces/" target="_blank" class="link link--external" rel="nofollow ugc noopener">http://terrytao.wordpress.com/2009/04/30/245c-notes-4-sobolev-spaces/</a><br /> &quot;<br /> (One can already see this with the most basic example of Sobolev embedding, coming from the fundamental theorem of calculus. If a (continuously differentiable) function f has f&#039; in L1 then we of course have f belongs to L∞ ; but the converse is far from true.) &quot;<br /> <br /> Now the Sobolev theroem tell us that in order for a function to be L∞, in 1D, we just need it to belong to W^{1}_{1} [\tex], which seems to me larger then the class of continuoulsy differentiable function, am I missing something?
 
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Hi there,

I am starting to wonder if my question was unclear, or meaningless..
If so please let me know and I will reformulate it.

Many thanks
 

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