question: "why are beats more audilbe between two consecutive low notes than two consecutive high notes? support your answer with relevant calculations and explanation?"(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

we were given some rules first:

theres

sin(2pi*h)t

(the formula for a sound wave, h=hz and t=the x value when graphing)

(2 sin*((2pi*hi )t+(2pi*hii )t)/2)×cos*((2pi*hi )t-(2pi*hii )t)/2)

where hi is the frequency of one tone and hii is the frequency of the sequential tone.

i remembered that 2^(1/12) would be the difference between them and i still need help explaining why

any help is muchly appreciated

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# Homework Help: Why are low beats more audible than high beats

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