Why are these 2 expressions equal?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the equality of the integral \(\int_{0}^{1}\frac{1}{x^x}dx\) and the infinite sum \(\sum_{x=1}^{\infty }\frac{1}{x^x}\). Participants explore the reasoning behind this relationship, including concepts of Riemann sums and potential approximations.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the meaning of "equal" and whether the calculator provides exact results or approximations, suggesting that the sum may serve as a Riemann sum approximation to the integral.
  • Another participant shares their experience of calculating both the integral and the summation to a high degree of precision, noting they appear equal.
  • A participant explains the concept of Riemann sums, emphasizing their role in approximating the area under a curve and relating it to the integral.
  • One participant challenges the connection between the integral and the sum, pointing out the dissimilar limits and questioning the association of terms in the Riemann sum.
  • Another participant references a source indicating that the equality is exact, while also suggesting a potential oversight in the original post.
  • Additional references to external sources, including Wikipedia and discussions about the gamma function, are shared, indicating interest in related mathematical concepts.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the nature of the equality between the integral and the sum. Some suggest it is an approximation, while others assert it is exact, leading to an unresolved discussion.

Contextual Notes

There are unresolved questions regarding the limits of integration versus summation, and the potential for missing signs or terms in the original expressions. The discussion also touches on advanced mathematical concepts without reaching a consensus on their implications.

Who May Find This Useful

Readers interested in mathematical analysis, Riemann sums, integrals, infinite series, and the properties of special functions may find this discussion relevant.

guysensei1
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Why is this true (at least, according to my calculator)? Is there something obvious that I've missed?
<br /> \int_{0}^{1}\frac{1}{x^x}dx=\sum_{x=1}^{\infty }\frac{1}{x^x}
 
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What do you mean by "equal, at least according to my calculator"? Does your calculator do such integrations and infinite sums exactly (a remarkable calculator but computer algebraic system can be remarkable!) or are you doing an approximation taking very large x but not to infinity? Certainly the two will be approximately the same since the sum on the right is a Riemann sum approximation to the integral on the left.
 
My graphing calculator managed to calculate the integral to 10 decimal places, and I calculated the summation to x=20 using the graphing calculator as well (to 10 DP). And they're the same.

I recently just learned Riemann sums in school and I don't fully understand why the 2 are equal (approximately?). Could you explain a little?
 
The whole point of Riemann sums is that they are used to show that the integral gives "area under a curve". If we have the curve y= f(x) such that y> 0 for a< x< b, we can divide the area into many thin rectangles, with width \Delta x and height f(x^*) where x^* is a point on the x-axis inside that rectangle. The area of each rectangle is, of course, f(x^*)\Delta x so the entire area is approximated by \sum f(x^*)\Delta x, the sum of the areas of all the rectangles. Taking the limit, taking more and more rectangles with \Delta x smaller and smaller, we get, by definition, the "Riemann integral", \int_a^b f(x)dx.

So for large n, \int_a^b f(x)dx is approximated by the sum \sum_{i= 0}^n f(x_n^*)\Delta x.
 
Either I am missing something or HallsofIvy is on the wrong track. The limits of the integral and the limits of the sum are dissimilar. There is no immediately obvious way in which to associate the terms of the sum with rectangles in the Riemann sum.

However, I was able to find a reference that indicates that the equality in question is exact. Check out the remark from Antonio Vargas:

http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/141347/finding-int-xxdx
 
Oh yes, my favourite: the gamma function! I've always been fascinated by the minimum in the gamma function...as if it had mysterious properties. X! = 1/2 (pi).5. Solve for x.
 
Also, I've always found it an incredible feat of mathematical ingenuity to create meaningful solutions to non-integer factorials.
 

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