cyril14
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Why I cannot use Jordan lemma to compute improper integral
[tex]\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(z) \hbox{\ d}(z)[/tex]
of a function like
[tex]f(z)=\frac{\exp(-|z|)}{(a^2+z^2)} \mbox{\ for } a>0[/tex]
Such a function is finite and continuous for [tex]|z|>a[/tex] and [tex]z f(z)[/tex] vanishes for [tex]z \to \infty[/tex].
I know, that this function is not differentiable in z=0, but it seems to me that this is not a cause of problems, as there exists contour integral along the upper half-circle around the origin, and its limit for vanishing diameter is 0.
Can somebody explain me why I cannot use Jordan lemma in this case?
Thanks in advance,
Cyril Fischer
[tex]\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(z) \hbox{\ d}(z)[/tex]
of a function like
[tex]f(z)=\frac{\exp(-|z|)}{(a^2+z^2)} \mbox{\ for } a>0[/tex]
Such a function is finite and continuous for [tex]|z|>a[/tex] and [tex]z f(z)[/tex] vanishes for [tex]z \to \infty[/tex].
I know, that this function is not differentiable in z=0, but it seems to me that this is not a cause of problems, as there exists contour integral along the upper half-circle around the origin, and its limit for vanishing diameter is 0.
Can somebody explain me why I cannot use Jordan lemma in this case?
Thanks in advance,
Cyril Fischer